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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
5

Why is an iron bolt attracted to a magnet?

Physics
2 answers:
icang [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. When it is in a magnetic field, it becomes a temporary magnet.

Explanation:

An iron bolt is attracted to a magnet because when in a magnetic field, the iron becomes a temporary magnet.

This is because the iron aligns their electrons in the magnetic fields.

  • This causes that attraction between the magnet and the iron.
  • Metals like iron are said to be ferromagnetic
  • Unpaired electrons in iron spin in such a way that they align with the magnetic fields of the magnet.
PSYCHO15rus [73]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A

Explanation:

just took the test late but its right

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I uploaded the answer to a file hosting. Here's link:

tinyurl.com/wpazsebu

4 0
2 years ago
An aircraft acceleration from 100m/s to 300m/s in 100 s what is acceleration​
Crank

Answer:

(300  - 100) \div 100

8 0
3 years ago
Please help Need good grade
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

The other angle is 120°.

Explanation:

Given that,

Angle = 60

Speed = 5.0

We need to calculate the  range

Using formula of range

R=\dfrac{v^2\sin(2\theta)}{g}...(I)

The range for the other angle is

R=\dfrac{v^2\sin(2(\alpha-\theta))}{g}....(II)

Here, distance and speed are same

On comparing both range

\dfrac{v^2\sin(2\theta)}{g}=\dfrac{v^2\sin(2(\alpha-\theta))}{g}

\sin(2\theta)=\sin(2\times(\alpha-\theta))

\sin120=\sin2(\alpha-60)

120=2\alpha-120

\alpha=\dfrac{120+120}{2}

\alpha=120^{\circ}

Hence, The other angle is 120°

6 0
3 years ago
How does a magnet work?
Alona [7]
All magnets have north and south poles. Opposite poles are attracted to each other, while the same poles repel each other. When you rub a piece of iron along a magnet, the north-seeking poles of the atoms in the iron line up in the same direction. The force generated by the aligned atoms creates a magnetic field.
7 0
2 years ago
A baseball pitcher throws a ball at 97.0 mi/h in the horizontal direction. How far does the ball fall vertically by the time it
mario62 [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

1 mile=5280 ft

1 hour=3600 seconds

Changing speed from mi/h to ft/s

97 mi/h \times \frac {5280}{3600}=142.2666667 ft/s\approx 142.27 ft/s

Time of flight, t=\frac {distance}{speed}=\frac {60.5}{142.27}=0.425257732 s\approx 0.425 s

From fundamental kinematics equations

h=0.5gt^{2} where g is acceleration due to gravity whose value is taken as 32.2 ft/s2 and h is the distance

By substitution

h=0.5\times 32.2\times 0.425^{2}=2.9080625 m\approx 2.91 m

7 0
3 years ago
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