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Montano1993 [528]
2 years ago
5

What is the result when the number 84 is decreased by 50%?

Mathematics
2 answers:
natka813 [3]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

alekssr [168]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

42

<h2> 84 ×50%by100 =42. 84-42= 42. hope helpful answer</h2>
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What is the value of this?
Alina [70]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

4³ ÷ 2³

= 64 ÷ 8

= 8

7 0
2 years ago
Plz solve this if u know plz​
salantis [7]
<h3>Solution:</h3>

{64}^{ -  \frac{1}{3} } ( {64}^{ \frac{1}{3} }  -  {64}^{ \frac{2}{3} } ) \\  {64}^{ \frac{1}{3} -  \frac{1}{3}  }  -  {64}^{ \frac{2}{3}  -  \frac{1}{3} }  \\  {64}^{0}  -  {64}^{ \frac{1}{3} }  \\ 1 -  \sqrt[3]{64}  \\ 1 - 4 \\  - 3

<h3>Answer:</h3>

- 3

5 0
3 years ago
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The table below shows some values of f(x) and g(x) for different values of x: x f(x) = 9x + 7 g(x) = 5x −2 −11 −1 −2 0 1 1 5 2 C
harina [27]
The Correct Should Be 
2
5 0
3 years ago
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Solve x = 4p + p3 if p=dy/dx​
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

x = pp12 or 12 pp

Step-by-step explanation:

Just to note that pp means p square

3 0
2 years ago
Please help me with this. Thank you!
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

1- 51.496yd 2- 39.25ft 3- 163.28cm 4- 53.38mm 5- 50.24in 6-94.2ft 7-18.84yd 8- 207.24m

Step-by-step explanation:

So how you do circumference is you find the diameter and times it by pi.

for 1. you will do 8.2 times 2 for the diameter then times it by pi and get 51.496 yards.

for 2 you would do 12.5 times pi and get 39.25ft

for 3 you would do 26 times 2 which is 52 then multiply it by pi which is 163.28cm

for 4 you do 17 times pi which is 53.38mm

for 5 you do 16 times pi which is 50.24in

for 6 you do 30 times pi which is 94.2ft

for 7 you do 3 times 2 which is 6 then multiply by pi which is 18.84yd

for 8 you do 33 times 2 which is 66 then multiply by pi which is 207.24m.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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