Answer:
10%
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0 chance because there is no black ones but you would probably pick a yellow one bigger chance for yellow jelly bean.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming that the balls are not replaced;

= 5/42
(the numbers are decreasing in the denominator as you are presumably taking out the red balls. In the denominator, there is one less ball each time since you took out a red one).
Therefore, the probability of selected 4 red balls consecutively without replacement is 5/42.
Hope I Helped :)
Answer:
<h2><em><u>
6/5</u></em></h2><h2>
</h2>
Explanation:
Step 1
Multiply the denominator by the whole number
5 × 1 = 5
Step 2
Add the answer from Step 1 to the numerator
5 + 1 = 6
Step 3
Write answer from Step 2 over the denominator
<h2><u>
6/5</u></h2><h2><u>
</u></h2><h2><u>
I hope this answer helps you out! Brainliest would be appreciated.</u></h2>
Integrate <span>f ''(x) = −2 + 36x − 12x2 with respect to x:
f '(x) = -2x + (36/2)x^2 - (12/3)x^3 + c. Find c by letting x = 0 and using f(0)=8.
Then f '(0) = -2x + 18x^2 - 4x^3 + c = 18 (which was given).
Then -0 + 0 - 0 + c = 18, so c = 18 and
f '(x) = </span>-2x + 18x^2 - 4x^3 + 18.
Go through the same integration process to find f(x).