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3 years ago

How does a catapult relate to potential and elastic energy? Explanation too and no links please!

Physics

1 answer:

victus00 [196]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The catapult works when the potential energy stored in a stretched rubber band is converted to kinetic energy when it snaps back to its loose shape, moving the catapult arm—and the projectile! ... The kinetic energy of the catapult will give the projectile a force moving up and away from the catapult.

Explanation:

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A car of mass 1500 kg travels due East with a constant speed of 25.0 m/s. Eventually it turns right, and travels due South with

e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

The direction of the car’s change in linear momentum is 149.04° West of North

Explanation:

Momentum is defined as the product of mass of a body and its velocity

Momentum = mass × velocity

Change in Momentum = mass × change in velocity

∆P = m∆v

∆P = m(v-u)

Given m = 1500kg

v = 25m/s

u = 15m/s

∆P = 1500(25-15)

∆P = 1500×10

∆P = 15,000kgm/s

Since the car first travels due East i.e +x direction

x = 25m/s

Travelling due south is negative y direction

y = -15m/s

Direction of the car change

θ = tan^-1(y/x)

θ = tan^-1(-15/25)

θ = tan^-1(-0.6)

θ = -30.96°

Since tan is negative in the second quadrant

θ = 180-30.96

θ = 149.04°

The direction of the car’s change in linear momentum is 149.04° West of North

5 0

4 years ago

A 0.80-μm-diameter oil droplet is observed between two parallel electrodes spaced 11 mm apart. The droplet hangs motionless if t

Arisa [49]

A) $2.4\cdot 10^{-16}kg$

The radius of the oil droplet is half of its diameter:

$r=\frac{d}{2}=\frac{0.80 \mu m}{2}=0.40 \mu m = 0.4\cdot 10^{-6}m$

Assuming the droplet is spherical, its volume is given by

$V=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 = \frac{4}{3}\pi (0.4\cdot 10^{-6} m)^3=2.68\cdot 10^{-19} m^3$

The density of the droplet is

$\rho=885 kg/m^3$

Therefore, the mass of the droplet is equal to the product between volume and density:

$m=\rho V=(885 kg/m^3)(2.68\cdot 10^{-19} m^3)=2.4\cdot 10^{-16}kg$

B) $1.5\cdot 10^{-18}C$

The potential difference across the electrodes is

$V=17.8 V$

and the distance between the plates is

$d=11 mm=0.011 m$

So the electric field between the electrodes is

$E=\frac{V}{d}=\frac{17.8 V}{0.011 m}=1618.2 V/m$

The droplet hangs motionless between the electrodes if the electric force on it is equal to the weight of the droplet:

$qE=mg$

So, from this equation, we can find the charge of the droplet:

$q=\frac{mg}{E}=\frac{(2.4\cdot 10^{-16}kg)(9.81 m/s^2)}{1618.2 V/m}=1.5\cdot 10^{-18}C$

C) Surplus of 9 electrons

The droplet is hanging near the upper electrode, which is positive: since unlike charges attract each other, the droplet must be negatively charged. So the real charge on the droplet is

$q=-1.5\cdot 10^{-18}C$

we can think this charge has made of N excess electrons, so the net charge is given by

$q=Ne$

where

$e=-1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C$ is the charge of each electron

Re-arranging the equation for N, we find:

$N=\frac{q}{e}=\frac{-1.5\cdot 10^{-18}C}{-1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C}=9.4 \sim 9$

so, a surplus of 9 electrons.

3 0

4 years ago

An object's angular momentum is proportional to its __________. An object's angular momentum is proportional to its __________.

ozzi

An object's angular momentum is proportional to its moment of inertia.

Option D

<u>Explanation:</u>

Momentum is the measure of an object's movement with respect to its mass and velocity. So it is determined as the product of mass and velocity. An object moving in linear motion, will experience linear momentum.

Similarly, if an object moves in circular motion, then the momentum will be angular momentum. So it is measured as the product of moment of inertia with angular velocity.

$L = Iw$

Here L is the angular momentum , I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular velocity.

Thus, the angular momentum is directly proportional to the moment of inertia.

3 0

3 years ago

A) Is it possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity? If yes give an example if not give its proof.

sveticcg [70]

Answer:

Yes, in case of uniform velocity

Explanation:

This is the case of uniform velocity. If a body covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time, then the velocity of a body is said to be ‘Uniform Velocity’. It meas that the velocity of a body remains constant during the motion and it does not change.

Since, acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.

Therefore, if there is no change in velocity or in other words the change in velocity is zero, then the acceleration is also zero.

a = ΔV/t = 0/t

a = 0 m/s²

So, the acceleration of the body is 0 m/s², but it has a uniform velocity

<u>Hence, it is possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity, which is the case case of uniform velocity.</u>

7 0

3 years ago

For a ship moving against the current, it takes 9 hours to cover a distance of 113.4 miles. how much does it take this ship to r

Digiron [165]

Let x mph be the speed of the ship in still water.
Against the current, the net speed is, (x-1.9) mph.
Time, t= distance, d/ Speed, v => 9= 113.4/(x-1.9) => 9(x-1.9) = 113.4 => x-1.9 = 113.4/9 => x = 12.6+1.9 = 14.5 mph

Moving with the current, the net speed of the ship = 14.5+1.9 =16.4 mph

Time take, t = d/v = 113.4/16.4 = 6.915 hours

3 0

3 years ago

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