Answer:
The correct answer is option (3) Complex.
Explanation:
The complex reaction time is a stimulus response. The complex reaction time may be defined as the latency that exists between the variable response and the variable stimulus. It decides the arrival of the stimulus and the time required to generate the response. The fatigue and type of stimulus may affect the reaction time.
Further explanation:
- Reaction time may be defined as the time required for the onset of any stimuli and the emission response of an organism.
- Simple reaction time is the only time that is taken to react towards a stimuli.
- The reaction time can be affected by various factors like age, gender, sex, race, stimulus type, stimulus intensity and psychological stability.
- Complex reaction time takes more time than the simple reaction time as they store the information for longer time.
- The information processing and transmission of the information of a particular stimuli can be measured in terms of the reaction time.
- The visual stimuli, auditory stimuli strength and its generation time response can be calculated by the reaction time.
Learn more:
1. Complex reaction time brainly.com/question/6976430 ( answer by Zainebamir540)
2. Stimulus brainly.com/question/123047 ( answer by Avantikar )
Keywords
:
Reaction time, simple, complex, stimulus, response, strength and latent.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
During a routine follow-up appointment for well-controlled dyslipidemia, a 26-year-old man is evaluated for a lump in his right groin. He first noted the lump one evening approximately 2 months ago after he helped his fiancé move into a new apartment. The lump was moderately uncomfortable, with pain concentrated in the groin and upper, inner aspect of his right thigh. The mass and discomfort subsided by the next morning, but he has had recurrence of mild to moderate pain during the week, but he is generally asymptomatic in the morning before going to work at his job at a factory where he stands most of the day. He has no prior surgical history, and his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. On physical examination, a soft, reducible mass consistent with a hernia is palpated in the right groin; the left groin appears normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. Use of a truss to compress the hernia and keep it from protruding
b. Urgent inguinal hernia repair because of a high risk for incarceration
c. Ultrasound examination of the groin to confirm the presence of a hernia
d. Elective open inguinal hernia repair at the patient's convenience
e. Watchful waiting because his symptoms consistently resolve with rest
Answer:
On the basis of the symptoms, the patient is suffering from indirect inguinal hernia. The abdominal cavity protrude in this medical condition and marked by excessive pain.
The management can be done by the surgery or by the elective open inguinal hernia repair process. This can only be done according to the patient convenience. The conditions needs to be corrected as it might cause severe problem in the body.
OPTIONS:
A) increased frequency of menstrual cycles.
B) decreased bone density.
C) complications with pregnancy and surgery.
D) slow recovery after illness
Answer:
A) increased frequency of menstrual cycles.
Explanation:
An adult female having a BMI that is below 18.5, might be an indication that she’s having low body fat, and this means she’s underweight. Several complications could arise as a result of this which include those listed in the options above except for option A. <em>Underweight women do not experience increased frequency of menstrual cycles, rather they do experience irregular menstrual cycles as a result of the low level of fat in their body.</em>
D. a solid to liquid hope this helped!
The rate of absorption given time or period.
