Answer:
I love algebra anyways
The ans is in the picture with the steps how i got it
(hope this helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)
Step-by-step explanation:
Pls help I’ll mark brainliest
2 answers:
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Answer:
a) 0.2725
b) 0.7275
c) 0.8948
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:
Where
n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]
x is what we are looking for [in the problem]
p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15
q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]
Now,
a)
We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0
Let's put into formula and find out the probability:
So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725
b)
Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).
This can be found by:
P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275
THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275
c)
No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).
This is essentially
P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)
P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725
P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:
and
Thus,
P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948