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Setler [38]
3 years ago
5

The product of two consecutive integers is zero, find the integers. Show work

Mathematics
1 answer:
castortr0y [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0,1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let n represent the first interger. and n+1 represent the next interger.

n \times (n + 1) = 0

{n}^{2}  + n = 0

Complete the square.

( \frac{n}{2}  {)}^{2}  =  \frac{ {n}^{2} }{4}

{n}^{2}   +n +  \frac{ {n}^{2} }{4}  =  \frac{ {n}^{2} }{4}

(n +  \frac{n}{2} ) {}^{2}  =  \frac{n {}^{2} }{4}

Take the square root.

(n +  \frac{n}{2} ) =  \frac{n}{2}

n = 0

Plug 0 in for 0+1.

0 + 1 = 1

So the consective intergers are 0,1.

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Answer:

14x cos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=14 \sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}x^{4k+1}}{(2k)!15^{2k}}

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find this Maclaurin series, we can start by using a known Maclaurin series and modify it according to our function. A pretty regular Maclaurin series is the cos series, where:

cos(x)=\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}x^{2k}}{(2k)!}

So all we need to do is include the additional modifications to the series, for example, the angle of our current function is: \frac{1}{15}x^{2} so for

cos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})

the modified series will look like this:

cos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})^{2k}}{(2k)!}

So we can use some algebra to simplify the series:

cos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}(\frac{1}{15^{2k}}x^{4k})}{(2k)!}

which can be rewritten like this:

cos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}x^{4k}}{(2k)!15^{2k}}

So finally, we can multiply a 14x to the series so we get:

14xcos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=14x\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}x^{4k}}{(2k)!15^{2k}}

We can input the x into the series by using power rules so we get:

14xcos(\frac{1}{15}x^{2})=14\sum _{k=0} ^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}x^{4k+1}}{(2k)!15^{2k}}

And that will be our answer.

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