Answer:
Total sum due after 5 years = $2,626.9
Explanation:
The sum of 100 that is invested per period(quarterly)for certain number of period is referred is referred to as an annuity. The total sum that the investment would worth after if interest rate is compounded quarterly for the investment period is referred to as the future value of annuity.
The total sum due can be computed in two stages. The first is to determined how much the annuity investment would worth after 5 years. And the second is to determine how much the single sum of $100 would worth after 5 years.
This done as follows:
The future Value of annuity is computed using the formula below:
FV = A×( (1+r)^n - 1)/r)× (1+r)
A- periodic cash flow invested
r- interest rate per period
n- number of period
FV = future value
r= 8/4= 2%
n= 5×4= 20
FV= 100×(1.02^20 -1)/0.02)×(1.02)= 2478.3
Step 2 : The future value of the value of the Initial lump sum of $100 already existing
FV= A× (1+r)∧n
= 100×(1.02)^20 =148.59
The sum due after the end of the investment period =
2478.3 + 148.59=$2,626.9
Total sum due after 5 years = $2,626.9
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) makes an interest-only payment to an investor. This payment will be <u>investors</u>
<h3>What is
collateralized mortgage obligation?</h3>
In order to satisfy the needs of investors, a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) repackages and directs the payments of principle and interest from a collateral pool to various types and maturities of securities.
The first CMOs were developed in 1983 for Freddie Mac, a supplier of mortgage liquidity in the United States, by the investment banks Salomon Brothers and First Boston. Although Dexter Senft eventually got an industry award for his services, Lewis Ranieri led the Salomon Brothers team and Laurence D. Fink led the First Boston team.
A CMO is not due by the institution that established and ran the business; rather, it is a debt instrument issued by an abstraction, or special purpose entity.
To learn more about collateralized mortgage obligation from the given link:
brainly.com/question/17277747
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The answer to this question is all of the above so d
I would say that an intrinsic risk factor would be like poor balance which can happen as a person ages, plus loss of muscle tone and these two things together, coupled with an extrinsic factor like outside uneven ground can contribute to a fall and perhaps broken bones as bones can get more brittle with age too.
Answer:
The volume of water needed=0.86 liters
Explanation:
Step 1: Form an equation
The equation can be expressed as follows;
(Ac×Va)+(Wc+Vw)=Fc(Va+Vw)
where;
Ac=initial concentration of antifreeze
Va=volume of antifreeze in liters
Wc=concentration of water
Vw=volume of the water in liters
Fc=final concentration of the antifreeze
This expression can be written as;
(concentration of antifreeze×volume of antifreeze in liters)+(concentration of water×volume of the water)=final concentration of the antifreeze(volume of antifreeze in liters+volume of the water in liters)
In our case;
Ac=45%=45/100=0.45
Va=3 liters
Wc=0
Vw=unknown
Fc=35%=35/100=0.35
Replacing;
(0.45×3)+(0×Vw)=0.35(3+Vw)
1.35=1.05+0.35 Vw
0.35 Vw=1.35-1.05
0.35 Vw=0.30
Vw=0.3/0.35=0.86
Vw=0.86 liters
The volume of water needed=0.86 liters
