Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Area of rectangle = length * width
= (x + 4) (5x)
= x *5x + 4 *5x
= 5x² + 20x
Perimeter of rectangle = 2*(length + width)
= 2*(x + 4 + 5x)
= 2*(6x + 4)
= 2*6x + 2 *4
= 12x + 8
Well if it pumps 4 2/5 per minute that is equal to 4 4/10 in a minute or 4.4 because you multiply the top and bottom of the fraction by two. it’s still the same fraction but it is easy to convert to a decimal now. you could use this fraction but it’s much easier to use decimals. Because the first number is a decimal you should make the second one a decimal too. To do this you need to know that 1/4 of 100 is 25. so now we have these numbers and all you do now is divide 17.25 by 4.4 which could be rounded to 4 because it’s a long decimal
Problem 11
<h3>Answer: h =
2A/b</h3>
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Explanation:
We need to get h by itself. To do so, we first multiply both sides by 2. Then we divide both sides by b
A = (1/2)*b*h
2A = b*h
b*h = 2A
h = 2A/b
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Problem 12
<h3>Answers:</h3>
- Equation: (n+2)/5 = 14
- Solution to that equation: n = 68
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Explanation:
The number n is increased by 2 to get n+2
Then we divide by 5 to get (n+2)/5
This is set equal to 14 to get the equation (n+2)/5 = 14
Solving the equation would look like this
(n+2)/5 = 14
n+2 = 5*14 .... multiply both sides by 5
n+2 = 70
n = 70-2 .... subtract 2 from both sides
n = 68
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Problem 13
<h3>Answer: Not a solution</h3>
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Explanation:
We'll replace every copy of x with -3 and simplify
-2x + 5 > 13
-2*(-3) + 5 > 13
6 + 5 > 13
11 > 13
The last inequality is false because 11 is not greater than 13. Since the last inequality is false, this makes the first inequality false when x = -3.
Therefore, x = -3 is not a solution.
Answer:
And using the probability mass function we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
For this cae that one buggy whip would be defective is 
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:
And using the probability mass function we got:
Answer:x^2 to the 2nd power = 42
!!!!!
Step-by-step explanation:
!!! enjoy
