Answer:
671/1296
The probability of rolling at least one six is therefore 1 − 625/1296 = 671/1296 ≈ . 517.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
it is a
Step-by-step explanation:
i dont know how to explain it i just did the math and it came out to that
Answer:
i got it wrong i don't want to give the wrong answer
question 4
smaller answer is -9
larger answer is 2
Step-by-step explanation:
i did the test
The second one because for every x value there is one and only one y value. If you plotted the points and graphed it, you would know it is not a function if it doesn't pass the vertical line test. Notice the same x values show up repeatedly in the other ordered pairs with different y values. Only one y value for every x value
Answer:
Let's define the cost of the cheaper game as X, and the cost of the pricer game as Y.
The total cost of both games is:
X + Y
We know that both games cost just above AED 80
Then:
X + Y > AED 80
From this, we want to prove that at least one of the games costed more than AED 40.
Now let's play with the possible prices of X, there are two possible cases:
X is larger than AED 40
X is equal to or smaller than AED 40.
If X is more than AED 40, then we have a game that costed more than AED 40.
If X is less than or equal to AED 40, then:
X ≥ AED 40
Now let's take the maximum value of X in this scenario, this is:
X = AED 40
Replacing this in the first inequality, we get:
X + Y > AED 80
Replacing the value of X we get:
AED 40 + Y > AED 80
Y > AED 80 - AED 40
Y > AED 40
So when X is equal or smaller than AED 40, the value of Y is larger than AED 40.
So we proven that in all the possible cases, at least one of the two games costs more than AED 40.
