Answer:
First choice:

Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
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<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
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That is the first choice.
0, and Positive infinity is the answer
Answer: 6
Step-by-step explanation:
To get 3/4 miles to 1 mile we must take the reciprocal of the number and multiply it.
×
We need to multiply the 4 1/2 ounces by 4/3 too
×
4 1/2 ounces per 3/4 miles
6 ounces per 1 mile
Answer:
I think A and C
Step-by-step explanation:
Im srry if its wrong, but my older sister says that its A and C
Answer: She can use 4 gigabyte while remaining in her budget.
Step-by-step explanation:
You would first subtract 54 from 70 which leaves you with 16,
Then you would divide 16 by 4 to find how many gigabytes she could use which gives you 4
So she can use 4 gigabyte while remaining in her budget.
Learn more about basic mathematics operations here
brainly.com/question/28493322
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