Answer:
(hope this helps can I pls have brainlist (crown)☺️)
Step-by-step explanation:
In pic
Answer:
14 m
Step-by-step explanation:
For the triangle, you use the formula A=1/2bh. So in this case it's 3×4×1/2. 3×4 is 12, times 1/2 is 6 m. Now for the rectangle it's just 2×4 which is 8. 8+6 is 14. Hope this helps! If you are still confused please comment!
I’m pretty sure the answer is A
Answer: 11/16
<u>Turn 1 7/8 into an Improper Fraction</u>
Multiply 1×8 and get 8. Now add 7 and get 15.
1 7/8 = 15/8
<u>Turn 2 8/11 into an Improper Fraction</u>
Multiply 2×11 and get 22. Now add 8 and get 30.
2 8/11 = 30/11
<u>Do Keep Change Flip</u>
Keep: 15/8
Change ÷ into ×
Flip: 30/11 into 11/30
Your New Problem: 15/8×11/30
<u>Multiply</u>
15/8×11/30=165/240
<u>Simplify</u>
165/240÷15/15=11/16
Answer:
Lease value
Step-by-step explanation:
The lease value may bed defined as an open market capital valuation of the parts of the subject or the subject that are to be leased in regards of the terms of the lease.
In the context, Lakiesha drives a company car whose value is $ 7,750 according to 15-b publication. The car was available for 200 days in a year. She drove the car for 4500 miles for her personal use and 21250 miles in total. The fuel is paid by the employer. So here the best method that will yield the lowest fringe benefit amount for her is the lease value method.
