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Lubov Fominskaja [6]
3 years ago
7

Which of the following best explains Big Bang Theory?

Physics
1 answer:
serg [7]3 years ago
5 0
Maybe put a picture?
You might be interested in
how much energy is needed to heat 2kg of cooking oil with a specific heat capacity of 2000j/kg°c from 20°c to 120°c​
mash [69]

Answer:

400kj

Explanation:

h =mass × specific heat capacity × change in temperature

= 2×2000×[120-20]

=2×2000×100

=400000j

=400kj

3 0
3 years ago
Consider a diffraction grating of width 5cm with slits of width 0.0001 cm separated by distance of 0.0002cm 1:what is the corres
sashaice [31]

Answer:

a) d= 0.0002cm

b) m=3

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Width of diffraction grating W_g= 5cm

Width of silt w_s 0.0001 cm

Distance d= 0.0002cm

a)

Generally the grafting element is the distance b/w  the silts

d= 0.0002cm

Therefore the grafting element is

d= 0.0002cm

b)

Generally the equation for diffraction state is mathematically given by

 dsin\theta=m\lambda

Since

 sin\theta \leq 1

Therefore

 m \leq \frac{d}{\lambda}

 m \leq \frac{0.0002}{0.000055}

 m \leq 3.6

Therefore orders observed with \lambda is

 m=3

3 0
3 years ago
8- A 20 KVA, 440/220 single-phase transformer has winding resistance as 0.090 and
Maurinko [17]

The total resistance referred to the HV side will be 0.36 ohm.

<h3>What is resistance?</h3>

Resistance is a type of opposition force due to which the flow of current is reduced in the material or wire. Resistance is the enemy of the flow of current.

The total resistance referred to HV side is;

\rm \frac{R_H}{R_L} =(\frac{V_P}{V_S})^2 \\\\ R_H=R_L(\frac{V_P}{V_S})^2\\\\  R_H=0.090 \times (\frac{440}{220})^2\\\\ R_H=4 \times 0.090 \\\\ R_H= 0.36 \ ohm

Hence, the total resistance referred to the HV side will be 0.36 ohm.

To learn more about the resistance refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/20708652

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
A 10-cm-long thin glass rod uniformly charged to 14.0 nC and a 10-cm-long thin plastic rod uniformly charged to - 14.0 nC are pl
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

A. At a point 1cm from the glass rod, E = 1.36 * 10⁶N/C

B. At a point 2cm from the glass rod, E = 5.17 * 10⁵N/C

C. At a point 3cm from the glass rod, E = 6.993 * 10⁵N/C

Explanation:

Parameters given:

Charge of glass rod, Q = 14nC = 14 * 10⁻⁹ C

Charge of plastic rod, q = 14nC = 14 * 10⁻⁹ C

Distance between both rods = 4.5cm = 0.045

A. Electric field strength at a point 1.0cm (0.01m) from the glass rod is the sum of electric field strength due to both rods i.e.

E = E₁ + E₂

Where

E₁ = electric field strength due to glass rod

E₂ = electric field strength due to plastic rod

E₁ = kQ/0.01²

E₂ = kq/(0.045 - 0.01)² = kq/(0.035)²

E = kQ/0.01² + kq/(0.035)² = k(Q/0001 + q/0.001225)

E = 9 * 10⁹ [(14 * 10⁻⁹ / 0.001) + (14 * 10⁻⁹)/0.001225]

E = 9 * 10⁹[(14 * 10⁻⁵) + (1.143 * 10⁻⁵)]

E = 9 * 10⁹ * 15.143* 10⁻⁵

E = 1.36 * 10⁶N/C

B. Electric field strength at a point 2.0cm (0.02m) from the glass rod is the sum of electric field strength due to both rods i.e.

E = E₁ + E₂

E₁ = kQ/0.02²

E₂ = kq/(0.045 - 0.02)² = kq/(0.025)²

E = kQ/0.02² + kq/(0.025)² = k(Q/0.0004 + q/0.000625)

E = 9 * 10⁹ [(14 * 10⁻⁹ / 0.0004) + (14 * 10⁻⁹)/0.000625]

E = 9 * 10⁹[(3.5 * 10⁻⁵) + (2.24 * 10⁻⁵)]

E = 9 * 10⁹ * 5.74 * 10⁻⁵

E = 5.17 * 10⁵N/C

C. Electric field strength at a point 3.0cm (0.03m) from the glass rod is the sum of electric field strength due to both rods i.e.

E = E₁ + E₂

E₁ = kQ/0.03²

E₂ = kq/(0.045 - 0.03)² = kq/(0.015)²

E = kQ/0.03² + kq/(0.015)² = k(Q/0009 + q/0.000225)

E = 9 * 10⁹ [(14 * 10⁻⁹ / 0.009) + (14 * 10⁻⁹)/0.000225]

E = 9 * 10⁹[( 1.55 * 10⁻⁵) + (6.22 * 10⁻⁵)]

E = 9 * 10⁹ * 7.77 * 10⁻⁵

E = 6.993 * 10⁵N/C

4 0
4 years ago
Atomic hydrogen produces a well-known series of spectral lines in several regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Each series f
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

n₁ = 3

Explanation:

The energy of the states in the hydrogen atom is explained by the Bohr model, the transitions heal when an electron passes from a state of higher energy to another of lower energy,

       ΔE = E_{nf} - E₀ = - k²e² / 2m (1 / n_{f}²2 - 1 / n₀²)

The energy of this transition is given by the Planck equation

       E = h f = h c / λ

       h c / λ = -k²e² / 2m (1 / no ²- 1 / no²)

       1 / λ = Ry (1/ n_{f}² - 1 / n₀²)

Let's apply these equations to our case

     λ = 821 nm = 821 10⁻⁹ m

     E = h c / λ

     E = 6.63 10⁻³⁴ 3 10⁸/821 10⁻⁹

     E = 2.423 10⁻¹⁹ J

Now we can use the Bohr equation

Let's reduce to eV

       E = 2,423 10⁻¹⁹ J (1eV / 1.6 10⁻¹⁹) = 1,514 eV

       E_{nf} - E₀ = -13.606 (1 /  n_{f}² - 1 / n₀²)   [eV]

Let's look for the energy of some levels

n         E_{n} (eV)          E_{nf} - EE_{ni} (eV)

1         -13,606           E₂-E₁ = 10.20

2        -3.4015           E₃-E₂ = 1.89

3        -1.512              E₄- E₃ = 0.662

4        -0.850375

We see the lines of greatest energy for each possible series, the closest to our transition is n₁ = 3 in which a transition from infinity (n = inf) to this level has an energy of 1,512 eV that is very close to the given value

8 0
3 years ago
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