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fiasKO [112]
3 years ago
13

We are evaluating a project that costs $1.68 million, has a six-year life, and has no salvage value. Assume that depreciation is

straight-line to zero over the life of the project. Sales are projected at 90,000 units per year. Price per unit is $37.95, variable cost per unit is $23.20, and fixed costs are $815,000 per year. The tax rate is 21 percent, and we require a return of 11 percent on this project. Suppose the projections given for price, quantity, variable costs, and fixed costs are all accurate to within ±10 percent.
Required:
Calculate the best-case and worst-case NPV figures.
Business
1 answer:
zvonat [6]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

                              Best-Case        Worst-Case

                                  NPV                     NPV

PV of cash inflows $2,897,706      $3,187,477

PV of project cost  $1,680,000     $1,848,000 ($1,680,000 * 1.1)

NPV                         $1,217,706    $1,339,477

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Initial project cost = $1.68 million

Project's estimated life = 6 years

Salvage value = $0

Depreciation expense = $280,000 ($1.68 million/6)

Income Statement:

Sales revenue (90,000 * $37.95) = $3,415,500

Cost of goods sold:

Variable cost (90,000 * $23.20) =    2,088,000

Gross profit =                                    $1,327,500

Fixed costs =                                         815,000

Income before tax =                           $512,500

Income tax (21% of $512,500) =          107,625

Net income =                                     $404,875

Add depreciation expense                280,000

Annual cash inflows =                      $684,875

PV annuity factor for 6 years at 11% = 4.231

PV of annual cash inflows of $684,875= $2,897,706 ($684,875 * 4.231)

Annual cash inflows = $753,363 ($684,875 * 1.1)

PV of annual cash inflows of $753,363 = $3,187,477 ($753,363 * 4.231)

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Resource Room prints custom training material for corporations. The business was started January 1, 2017. The company uses a nor
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

Budgeted Overhead Cost          266,000          

Budgeted Labor Cost                   190,000          

Recovery rate                       =266000/190000          

Recovery rate per labor cost     1.40          

Actual Material                             158,000          

Actual labor                                       175,000          

WIP closing                         Material    Labor          

Job 11                                4,720    5,700          

Job 12                                 5,090    6,900          

Total                                  9,810    12,600          

Transfer to Finished= Total-WIP            

Actual Material                 148,190          

Actual labor                         162,400          

Category                    Finished    WIP           Total        

Material                             148,190     9,810          158,000        

Labor                             162,400     12,600   175,000        

Overhead-Recovered      227,360      17,640     245,000

@ 140% of labor        

Balance before                537,950       40,050     578,000

adjustment to overhead

under-allocation        

Option 1-Underallocated     2,200                                     2,200  

overhead (247200-245000)

     

Balance after adjusting      540,150       40,050     580,200

overhead under-allocation        

Option 2-Underallocated        2,042           158      2,200

overhead in overhead allocated rate

       

2200*227360/245000            

2200*17640/245000            

Balance before adjustment          537,950          40,050     578,000

to overhead under-allocation        

Balance after adjusting                 539,992          40,208     580,200  

overhead under-allocation          

g. the option 2 will be chosen because a careful look at the underallocated overhead is similar to 2017 so the charge should be levied on all activity

Explanation:

Budgeted Overhead Cost          266,000          

Budgeted Labor Cost                   190,000          

Recovery rate                       =266000/190000          

Recovery rate per labor cost     1.40          

Actual Material                             158,000          

Actual labor                                       175,000          

WIP closing                         Material    Labor          

Job 11                                4,720    5,700          

Job 12                                 5,090    6,900          

Total                                  9,810    12,600          

Transfer to Finished= Total-WIP            

Actual Material                 148,190          

Actual labor                         162,400          

Category                    Finished    WIP           Total        

Material                             148,190     9,810          158,000        

Labor                             162,400     12,600   175,000        

Overhead-Recovered      227,360      17,640     245,000

@ 140% of labor        

Balance before                537,950       40,050     578,000

adjustment to overhead

under-allocation        

Option 1-Underallocated     2,200                                     2,200  

overhead (247200-245000)

     

Balance after adjusting      540,150       40,050     580,200

overhead under-allocation        

Option 2-Underallocated        2,042           158      2,200

overhead in overhead allocated rate

       

2200*227360/245000            

2200*17640/245000            

Balance before adjustment          537,950          40,050     578,000

to overhead under-allocation        

Balance after adjusting                 539,992          40,208     580,200  

overhead under-allocation          

g. the option 2 will be chosen because a careful look at the underallocated overhead is similar to 2017 so the charge should be levied on all activity

3 0
3 years ago
Gremlin Industries will pay a dividend of $ 1.55 per share this year. It is expected that this dividend will grow by 7​% per yea
sasho [114]

Answer: 14%

Explanation:

We can calculate this using the Gordon Growth Model which looks like this,

P = D1 / r - g

P is the current stock price

D1 is the next dividend

r is the rate of return or the cost of capital

g is the growth rate.

We have all those figures except the cost of capital so making r the subject of the formula we can solve for it. Doing that will make the formula,

r = D/ P + g

r = 1.55 / 22.10 + 0.07

r = 0.1401

r = 14%

14% is the equity cost of capital.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
List two types of discounts and explain how they work for consumers.
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

Early settlement Discount: It is offered to customer to encourage them to pay earlier than the payment date.

Bulk Discount: If the customer buys over a certain quantity, he will get a discount.

4 0
3 years ago
On january 11, 2016, hughes company applied for a trade name. Legal Costs associated with the application were $20,000. In Jan.
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

1. Ending Carrying value value in 2016 = legal cost for application which is $20,000

Ending Carrying value in 2017 = legal cost of application in 2016 + legal fees incurred in 2017 = $20,00 + $8000= $28,000

2. The company should not amortize the trade as it was not impaired in 2016 and 2017.

The trade name can be amortized if it's useful life is known above which the company has determined that it will not use the trade name anymore, then it will be amortized over it's useful life.

6 0
3 years ago
The following is the ending balances of accounts at December 31, 2018 for the Weismuller Publishing Company.
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

Weismuller Publishing Company

A Classified Balance Sheet at December 31, 2018

Assets:

Current Assets:

Cash                                                $77,000

Accounts Receivable   172,000

less allowance             <u> 22,000</u>      150,000

Investments                                    152,000

Inventories                                      291,000

Prepaid Expenses                           <u> 94,000</u>         $764,000

Long-term Assets:

Prepaid Expenses                           66,000

Machinery & Equipment 332,000

less Accumulated Depr.  <u>116,000</u> 216,000       <u> $282,000</u>

Total Assets                                                      <u>$1,046,000</u>

Current Liabilities:

Accounts payable                        $66,000

Interest payable                             26,000

Deferred revenue                          86,000

Taxes payable                                36,000

Notes payable:

   Six months                 46,000

   One year                   <u>26,000 </u>    <u>72,000</u>          $286,000

Long-term Liabilities:

Notes payable:

   Two or more years              52,000

   Six years                              <u>106,000</u>              <u>$158,000</u>

Total Liabilities                                                   $444,000

Equity:

Authorized Common Stock, 700,000 shares

Issued Common Stock       $406,000

Retained Earnings                <u> 196,000</u>             <u>$602,000</u>

Total Liabilities + Equity                               <u>$1,046,000</u>

<u></u>

Explanation:

a) Prepaid Expenses are classified as follows:

Current Assets: $160,000 - $66,000 = $94,000

Long-Term Assets = $66,000 ($132,000/2)

Since a year's lease is due in the next year.

b) Investments are classified as current because they include treasury bills maturing on January 30, 2019, and marketable securities saleable next year.

c) Deferred Revenue is a current liability.

d) The classifications of notes payable are indicated in the balance sheet.

8 0
3 years ago
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