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Otrada [13]
3 years ago
12

An airplane travels 4000m in 16 seconds on a heading of 35 whats is its velocity

Physics
1 answer:
Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
6 0

In the question, you just gave a complete and detailed
description of the plane's velocity vector:

       4,000/16  meters/second , heading 35 degrees .

You might want to simplify the speed and make it a unit rate,
but otherwise, it's perfect.

         250 meters/second, heading 35 degrees .

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Suppose you hit a steel nail with a 0.500-kg hammer, initially moving at 15.0 m/s and brought to rest in 2.80 mm. How much is th
katrin [286]

Complete Question

Suppose you hit a steel nail with a 0.500-kg hammer, initially moving at 15.0 m/s and brought to rest in 2.80 mm. How much is the nail compressed if it is 2.50 mm in diameter and 6.00-cm long.What Average force is excreted on the Nail

Answer:

F=2*10^{4}N

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Mass m=0.500kg

Initial Velocity V=15.0m/s

Distance x=2.80mm=>0.00280m

Diameter d=2.50mm=>0.00250m

Length l=6.00cm=>0.6m

Generally the equation for Force is mathematically given by

 F=\frac{mv^2}{2d}

 F=\frac{0.500*15^2}{2.80*10^{-3}}

 F=2*10^{4}N

6 0
3 years ago
A scientist discovers a fossil of an animal and places it in the fossil record. The organism’s bones are similar to the bones of
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

I think 3

Explanation:

That makes sense

3 0
2 years ago
How quickly do muscles become fatigued?​
agasfer [191]

Answer:

Fatigue is usually defined as the reversible decline of performance during activity, and most recovery occurs within the first hour. However, there is also a slowly reversible component that can take several days to reverse (155). Muscle injury also causes a decline in performance that reverses only very slowly.

5 0
3 years ago
Two forces, F⃗ 1F→1F_1_vec and F⃗ 2F→2F_2_vec, act at a point,F⃗ 1F→1F_1_vec has a magnitude of 8.80 NN and is directed at an an
castortr0y [4]

Answer:

  • Fx = -9.15 N
  • Fy = 1.72 N
  • F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°

Explanation:

You apparently want the sum of forces ...

  F = 8.80∠-56° +7.00∠52.8°

Your angle reference is a bit unconventional, so we'll compute the components of the forces as ...

  f∠α = (-f·cos(α), -f·sin(α))

This way, the 2nd quadrant angle that has a negative angle measure will have a positive y component.

  = -8.80(cos(-56°), sin(-56°)) -7.00(cos(52.8°), sin(52.8°))

  ≈ (-4.92090, 7.29553) +(-4.23219, -5.57571)

  ≈ (-9.15309, 1.71982)

The resultant component forces are ...

  • Fx = -9.15 N
  • Fy = 1.72 N

Then the magnitude and direction of the resultant are

  F∠γ = (√(9.15309² +1.71982²))∠arctan(-1.71982/9.15309)

  F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°

4 0
3 years ago
A steel bar of rectangular cross section (1.5 in. 2 3 .0 in.) carries a tensile load P (see fig- ure). The allowable stresses in
lukranit [14]

Explanation:

Value of the cross-sectional area is as follows.

        A = 1.5 \times 2.30

           = 3.45 in^{2}

The given data is as follows.

          Allowable stress = 14,500 psi

          Shear stress = 7100 psi

Now, we will calculate maximum load from allowable stress as follows.

           P_{max} = \sigma_{a}A

                       = 14500 \times 3.45

                       = 50025 lb

Now, maximum load from shear stress is as follows.

           P_{max} = 2 \times \tau_{a} \times A

                      = 2 \times 7100 \times 3.45

                      = 48990 lb

Hence, P_{max} will be calculated as follows.

       P_{max} = min((P_{max})_{\sigma}, (P_{max})_{\tau})

                  = 48990 lb

Thus, we can conclude that the maximum permissible load P_{max} is 48990 lb.

4 0
3 years ago
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