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Shtirlitz [24]
3 years ago
10

√25- a + √9-a=? If √25-a - √9-a=2

Mathematics
1 answer:
DIA [1.3K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

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Consider an experiment that consists of recording the birthday for each of 20 randomly selected persons. Ignoring leap years, we
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

a)  p_{20d} = 0.588

b) 23

c) 47

Step-by-step explanation:

To find a solution for this question we must consider the following:

If we’d like to know the probability of two or more people having the same birthday we can start by analyzing the cases with 1, 2 and 3 people

For n=1 we only have 1 person, so the probability  p_{1} of sharing a birthday is 0 (p_{1}=0)

For n=2 the probability p_{2} can be calculated according to Laplace’s rule. That is, 365 different ways that a person’s birthday coincides, one for every day of the year (favorable result) and 365*365 different ways for the result to happen (possible results), therefore,

p_{2} = \frac{365}{365^{2} } = \frac{1}{365}

For n=3 we may calculate the probability p_{3} that at least two of them share their birthday by using the opposite probability P(A)=1-P(B). That means calculating the probability that all three were born on different days using the probability of the intersection of two events, we have:

p_{3} = 1 - \frac{364}{365}*\frac{363}{365} = 1 - \frac{364*363}{365^{2} }

So, the second person’s birthday might be on any of the 365 days of the year, but it won’t coincide with the first person on 364 days, same for the third person compared with the first and second person (363).

Let’s make it general for every n:

p_{n} = 1 - \frac{364}{365}*\frac{363}{365}*\frac{362}{365}*...*\frac{(365-n+1)}{365}

p_{n} = \frac{364*363*362*...*(365-n+1)}{365^{n-1} }

p_{n} = \frac{365*364*363*...*(365-n+1)}{365^{n} }

p_{n} = \frac{365!}{365^{n}*(365-n)! }

Now, let’s answer the questions!

a) Remember we just calculated the probability for n people having the same birthday by calculating 1 <em>minus the opposite</em>, hence <em>we just need the second part of the first calculation for</em> p_{n}, that is:

p_{20d} = \frac{364}{365}*\frac{363}{365}*\frac{362}{365}*...*\frac{(365-20+1)}{365}

We replace n=20 and we obtain (you’ll need some excel here, try calculating first the quotients then the products):

p_{20d} = 0.588

So, we have a 58% probability that 20 people chosen randomly have different birthdays.

b) and c) Again, remember all the reasoning above, we actually have the answer in the last calculation for pn:

p_{n} = \frac{365!}{365^{n}*(365-n)! }

But here we have to apply some trial and error for 0.50 and 0.95, therefore, use a calculator or Excel to make the calculations replacing n until you find the right n for p_{n}=0.50 and p_{n}=0.95

b) 0.50 = 365!/(365^n)*(365-n)!

n           p_{n}

1              0

2           0,003

3           0,008

….           …

20           0,411

21           0,444

22           0,476

23           0,507

The minimum number of people such that the probability of two or more of them have the same birthday is at least 50% is 23.

c) 0.95 = 365!/(365^n)*(365-n)!

We keep on going with the calculations made for a)

n             p_{n}

…                …

43            0,924

44            0,933

45            0,941

46            0,948

47            0,955

The minimum number of people such that the probability of two or more of them have the same birthday is at least 95% is 47.

And we’re done :)

6 0
4 years ago
Someone tell me what 8x+ 7 isss
Lesechka [4]
This expression is not factorable which means the answer is 8x+7
4 0
3 years ago
2z – 33 = 3(z + 4) – 4z what is the answer?
MAVERICK [17]
The answer is 15!
Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
15 men can build a wall in 42 hours, how many men will be required for the same work in 30 hours
Mariulka [41]

Answer:

This question can be solved using direct and inverse variation. Direct variation can be solved using unitary method that is common sense like if you buy 10 chocolates for 100 rupees how many rupees would you pay for 20 - this is simple as if 10 chocolates is 100 then 20 would be 200. HOWEVER,  Inverse Variation is when one value increase the other value decreases and they are proportional. They have a formula called x1/x2 = y2/y1.

In this problem we can use this formula, x1/x2 = 15/42 and y2/y1 = 30/x

so hence 15/42 = 30/x

= 15x = 30*42

x= 1260/15

 = 84

Therefore 84 is the answer.

5 0
2 years ago
What's the difference from sin, cos, and tan?
choli [55]
Sin, cos and tan <span>are </span>used in trigonometry to express the ratio of two sides of a triangle. The number is influenced by the angles. The 3 sides can be called:
1. adjacent: the side that near the angle
2. hypotenuse: the diagonal line
3. opposite side: the side that doesn't touch the angle.

Sin is the ratio of opposite side with the hypotenuse.
Cos is the ratio of adjacent side with the hypotenuse
Tan is the ratio of opposite side with the adjacent side. It also called ratio of sin with cos.

If put into equations it will be:
sin= opposite/ hypotenuse
cos= adjacent/hypotenuse
tan= sin/cos= opposite/adjacent
3 0
3 years ago
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