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patriot [66]
2 years ago
13

Margaret invested $2000 into an account earning 4% interest compounded continuously. How much will her investment be worth after

5 years?
Mathematics
1 answer:
mr_godi [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$400

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which of the following equations is used to calculate the probability of event A happening, given that event B has occurred?
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Not much to explain

6 0
3 years ago
Measure the diagonal of a square whose area is exactly one square foot. Is the diagonal length closer to 1.5 or 1.4 feet? Explai
kondor19780726 [428]

It is closer to 1.4

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a 45 45 90 triangle

To find the hypotenuse of this triangle it is any side length times the square root of two.

Formula: Square Root = sqrt

Hypotenuse = SideLength*sqrt(2) ; 1*sqrt(2) = 1.412...

Rounded to the nearest tenths it is closer to 1.4 than 1.5


8 0
3 years ago
Tim's company offers a reimbursement package of $0.65 per mile plus $145
zalisa [80]

Answer:

C = 0.65x + 145

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume:

Number of miles = x

Annual maintenance = $145

Total reimbursement = C = $0.65*x + $145 = $0.65x + $145

4 0
3 years ago
C=a/5t what does t equal?
-Dominant- [34]
Photo has the answer! hope it helped

8 0
3 years ago
The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
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