Answer:
The stock's new expected rate of return is 14%
Explanation:
Ke=Rf+beta(Mrp-Rf)
Ke is the cost of capital is 10.20%
Rf i the risk free rate which is unknown
beta is 1.00
(Mrp-Rf) is the market risk premium at 6%
10.20%=Rf+1.0(6%)
10.20%=Rf+6.0%
Rf=10.20-6.00%
Rf=4.20%
Beta for the risky asset is 1.00*130%=1.3
New risk rate is the old rate plus inflation rate of 2.00%
new risk free=4.2%+2%=6.2%
The expected return on the new asset is computed thus:
Ke=6.2%+1.3(6%)
Ke=6.2%+7.8%
Ke=14%
Answer:
The demand for Post Raisin Brand cereal is: ELASTIC
the demand for all types of breakfast cereals is: INELASTIC
Explanation:
To calculate the price elasticity of demand (PED) we can use the following formula:
PED = % change in quantity / % change in price
- If PED > 1, the demand is price elastic
- If PED = 1, the demand is price unitary
- If PED < 1, the demand is price inelastic
*The PED always results in a negative number, e.g. price deceases, quantity increases, but for practical reasons we convert the negative number into a positive (we use absolute values) when we are determining the elasticity.
Answer: Personal comparison
Explanation:
When it comes to the Control Process, entities are allowed to use several comparison methods when comparing task results with objectives.
These include:
- the Historical method where current performance is compared to past performance
- the Relative comparison method where the organization's performance is compared against a benchmark of other organizations in the industry.
- Engineering comparison where schedules are used to ensure that activities finish on time.
Personal comparison is not an acceptable method.
Answer:
Finch has an interest expense deduction of the amount of $6,300.
Explanation:
Based on the information given in a situation where Finch pays George interest of the amount of $6,300 in which the amount of $7,000 was the principal payment on the note which means that Finch will have an interest expense deduction of the amount of $6,300 reason been that the amount of interest that was paid to George which is $6,300 will be the amount that is allowed for deduction.
Answer:
I strongly believe that the requirement is to calculate the price of the bond.
The bond is worth $ 70,824,063.03
Explanation:
It is noteworthy that a rational would-be investor would pay for a bond a price that reflects the cash flows receivable from the bonds in future discounted to today's terms.
The future cash flows comprise of the semi-annual coupon interest of $4 million(10%/2 *$80 million) for 20 periods as well as the repayment of the principal $80 million at the end of period 20
Since coupon is paid every six months, the coupon would be twenty times over the life of the bond(paid twice a year for 10 years)
To bring the cash inflows today's term, we multiply them them by the discounting factor 1/(1+r)^N , where is the yield to maturity of 12% and N is the relevant the cash flow is received.
The discounting is done in attached spreadsheet leading $ 70,824,063.03 present value today.
