For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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Answer:
(1, -4)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1. <AOB and <XOZ are vert. <'s 1. Given
m<AOB = 80 m<XOZ = 6x+5
2. m<AOB = m<XOZ 2. Vertical <'s are congruent
3. 80 = 6x+5 3. Substitution
4. 75 = 6x 4. Subtraction Property of equality
5. 12.5 = x 5. Division Property of equality
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A and B
Step-by-step explanation:
using the law of exponents
• 
= 
, hence
= 
→ A
note that (- 3)² = 9 = 3², hence
= (3²)³ = 
→ B
There are parrelell line and congruent line in the part to get the answer u must figure ot the angles in each one.6 to 2=12 that the answer for number 1.i might dont have it right.people say im dum.at least i try.
