All categories

3 years ago

Economics

Engineering

1 answer:

ziro4ka [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

D) sightseeing

Explanation:

Opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone, can be defined as the value, profit or benefits given up by an individual or organization in order to choose or acquire something deemed significant at the time.

Simply stated, it is the cost of not enjoying the benefits, profits or value associated with the alternative forgone or best alternative choice available.

For instance, if you decide to invest resources such as money in a food business (restaurant), your opportunity cost would be the profits you could have earned if you had invested the same amount of resources in a salon business or any other business as the case may be.

In this scenario, the opportunity cost for Mikael is sightseeing to the popular Oura Preta during his stay in Brazil.

Thus, the alternative forgone by Mikael is a visit to the popular Oura Preta i.e sightseeing while retaining or maintaining other expenses such as food, hotel reservation, and transportation.

You might be interested in

You are in charge of ordering the concrete for a basement wall concrete pour. The wall forms are all set up and ready. The wall

choli [55]

Answer:

189.15cy

Explanation:

To understand this problem we need to understand as well the form.

It is clear that there is four wall, two short and two long.

The two long are $\rightarrow 120ft5in+2(10ft)$

The two long are $\rightarrow 122ft1in=122.08ft$

The two shors are $\rightarrow 86ft4.5in = 86.375ft$

The height and the thickness are 14ft and 0.83ft respectively.

So we only calculate the Quantity of concrete,

$Q_c = [(2*122.08)+(2*86-375)]*14*0.833\\Q_c=4864.02ft^3$

That in cubic yards is equal to $180.15 (1cy=27ft^3)$

Hence, we need order 5% plus that represent with the quantity

$Q_{ordered}=1.05*180.15=189.15cy$

8 0

3 years ago

In the circuit given below, R1 = 17 kΩ, R2 = 74 kΩ, and R3 = 5 MΩ. Calculate the gain 1formula58.mml when the switch is in posit

Elenna [48]

Answer:a

a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4

b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8

c) Vo/Vi = - 1000

Explanation:

R1 = 17kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0

sin we know Va≈Vb=0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k

Vo/Vi = -3.4

║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4 ( negative sign phase inversion)

R2 = 74kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 14.8

║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8 ( negative sign phase inversion)

Also for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0 ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 1000

║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000 ( negative sign phase inversion)

3 0

3 years ago

If the specific surface energy for aluminum oxide is 0.90 J/m2 and its modulus of elasticity is (393 GPa), compute the critical

vampirchik [111]

Answer:

critical stress required for the propagation is 27.396615 × $10^{6}$ N/m²

Explanation:

given data

specific surface energy = 0.90 J/m²

modulus of elasticity E = 393 GPa = 393 × $10^{9}$ N/m²

internal crack length = 0.6 mm

to find out

critical stress required for the propagation

solution

we will apply here critical stress formula for propagation of internal crack

( σc ) = $\sqrt{\frac{2E\gamma s}{\pi a}}$ .....................1

here E is modulus of elasticity and γs is specific surface energy and a is half length of crack i.e 0.3 mm = 0.3 × $10^{-3}$ m

so now put value in equation 1 we get

( σc ) = $\sqrt{\frac{2E\gamma s}{\pi a}}$

( σc ) = $\sqrt{\frac{2*393*10^9*0.90}{\pi 0.3*10^{-3}}}$

( σc ) = 27.396615 × $10^{6}$ N/m²

so critical stress required for the propagation is 27.396615 × $10^{6}$ N/m²

6 0

3 years ago

Earth completes one full ____ on its axis every 24 hours

mars1129 [50]

Answer:

rotation

Explanation:

I just answered this!

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why do you think the Combination Square is better to use than the tape

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be "Because the head acts as a stop".

Explanation:

Since the head serves as either a stopping (especially in comparison to something like a floppy tape clip or hanger), the combination square seems to be more reliable and accurate than those of the tape measure.
And maybe you'll know that certain style outlines are still square to something like the sides or finishes.

So that the above seems to be the right answer.

8 0

3 years ago