Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
20/6 - 4/6= 16/6= 2 4/6= 2 2/3
<span>1. Suppose that a family has an equally likely chance of having a cat or a dog. If they have two pets, they could have 1 dog and 1 cat, they could have 2 dogs, or they could have 2 cats.
What is the theoretical probability that the family has two dogs or two cats?
25% chance
</span><span>2. Describe how to use two coins to simulate which two pets the family has.
</span>
You could use the coins to simulate which pet the family has by flipping them and having head be dog and tails be cat (or vice-versa).
<span>3. Flip both coins 50 times and record your data in a table like the one below.
</span><span>Based on your data, what is the experimental probability that the family has two dogs or two cats?
</span>
Based on the results, I concluded that for Heads, Heads (which could be dogs or cats) there was a 24% chance and for Tails, Tails there was a 26% chance
<span>4. If the family has three pets, what is the theoretical probability that they have three dogs or three cats?
1/8 chance (accidentally messed up there) or 12.5%
</span><span>5. How could you change the simulation to generate data for three pets?
</span><span>
To flip 3 coins and add more spots on the chart.
I hope that this helps because it took a while to write out. If it does, please rate as Brainliest
</span>
So the lettuce went up by 0.25 or 25c, now, if we take 1.25 to be the 100%, how much is 0.25 in percentage off of it?
Answer:
<em>0.78</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question, we are to represent 78% as a decimal
78% = 78/100
78/100 = 78 * 1/100
78/100 = 78 * 0.01
78/100 = 0.78
<em>hence the percent written as a decimal is 0.78</em>
Answer:
.60
Step-by-step explanation:
You trying to divide them and you have to do KCF (Keep, Change, Flip) You keep the 1/10, you change the division sign into a multiplication sign, you then flip the 1/6 to 6/1. Now you multiple and you get your answer!
