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gladu [14]
3 years ago
8

A monopolistically competitive firm is producing at an output level in the short run where average total cost is $4.75, price is

$4.75, marginal revenue is $3.00, and marginal cost is $3.50. This firm is operating Multiple Choice with a loss. at the break-even point. with positive profits. at an optimal level of output.
Business
1 answer:
Scorpion4ik [409]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: With a loss

Explanation:

The firm here has its Marginal cost higher than it's marginal revenue.

This means that for every additional unit sold, the company is incurring a loss of $0.50 which is the difference between the marginal cost and the marginal revenue.

The company is therefore operating at a loss because every additional unit is costing them instead of benefitting them. To counter this, they need to reduce production so that marginal cost will fall.

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MasterCom Corporation corporation produces a semiconductor chip used on communications. the direct materials are added at hte st
Mariana [72]

Answer:

a. The equivalent units of work done in​ June=   450,000

b. The total manufacturing cost per chip= $ 12.199= $ 12.2

Explanation:

a. The equivalent units of work done in​ June

Units Started                                                                  475,000

Units Completed                                                             425,000

Units still in Process completed 50% =  (50,000 * 50%) 25,000

The equivalent units of work done in​ June  =        450,000

b. The total manufacturing cost per chip

Direct material cost                 $935,750

Conversion costs                 $4,554,000

The total manufacturing     $ 5489750

The total manufacturing cost per chip =   $ 5489750/450,000

  The total manufacturing cost per chip       = $ 12.199= $ 12.2

3 0
3 years ago
If $1,000 is deposited in a certain bank account and remains in the account along with any accumulated interest, the dollar amou
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

The rate is greater than 8%

Explanation:

Given

\small I = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{n}-1 \right )

<em>Missing part of question</em>

I =210

n =2

Required

Is r > 1

We have:

\small I = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{n}-1 \right )

Substitute values for r and I

210 = 1,000 \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right )

Divide both sides by 1000

0.210 = \left (\left (1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right )

Add 1 to both sides

1.210 = (1+\frac{r}{100} \right ))^{2}

Take square roots of both sides

\sqrt{1.210} = 1+\frac{r}{100}

1.1 = 1+\frac{r}{100}

Subtract 1 from both sides

0.1 = \frac{r}{100}

Multiply both sides by 100

r = 10

10 > 8

<em></em>

<em>Hence, the rate is greater than 8%</em>

7 0
3 years ago
The adjustment for overapplied overhead ______ net income.
tester [92]

Answer:

<em>The adjustment for overapplied overhead </em><em><u>decreases cost of goods sold and increases</u></em><em> </em><em>net income</em>

6 0
2 years ago
Zen Arcade paid the weekly payroll on January 2 by debiting Salaries and Wages Expense for $47,000. The accountant preparing the
hram777 [196]

Answer:

Salaries and wages payable...................Dr                    $20,000

                                      Salaries and wages expense                  $20,000

Explanation:

As per accrual system, an expense is incurred when it is accrued irrespective of when it is paid. So, $20,000 was accrued in December 31, salary and wages expenses would have been debited then amounting to $20,000.

In order to rectify the mistake of double counting, the entry passed by the accountant would be reversed to nullify the effect.

Adjusting Journal entry:

Particulars                                            Debit              Credit

Salaries and wages payable               $20,000

                 Salaries and wages expense                    $20,000

(Being double counting of salaries and

wages expense rectified)

4 0
3 years ago
If you put $100 into a bank account that earns five percent interest per year, what is the formula you should use to determine t
Ainat [17]

Answer:

Future value equals the present value multiplied by one plus the rate of interest in decimals.

Explanation:

Future value = present value x (1 + interest rate)

Interest rate = present value x interest rate

3 0
3 years ago
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