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Masteriza [31]
4 years ago
12

in a football tournament at group stage there are five football teams in a group, Brazil, England, Scotland, Argentina and Franc

e. Each team plays every other team in their group. There are ten matches altogether. Two teams are picked at random to play the first match. Work out the probability that the first game will be played by a European team and a South American team.
Mathematics
1 answer:
emmasim [6.3K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

6/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Because england, scotland and france are european team and they make up 3/5 of all the teams, you multiply 3/5 by 2/5 because the south american teams are brazil and argentina which make up 2/5 of the total teams. So the probability that a european team will play a south american team is 3/5*2/5 which is 6/25

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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
4 years ago
If 5 gallons of milk costs $12, how much should 1 pint cost?
Igoryamba

Answer:

$1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 8 pints in a gallon so divide 12 and 8 to find the cost of 1 pint

Reduce the expression, if possible, by cancelling the common factors.

6 0
3 years ago
You and a friend or 2 pizzas from pizza hut. you ate 7/8 of one pizza and 3/4 of the other pizza. find the product of the amount
kotegsom [21]
13/8 or 1 5/8
3/4 becomes 7/8 when add it is 13/8
6 0
3 years ago
Please help with question 10
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

equation of the line is y=x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

the equation of a line has the form y = mx + b

while m is for the slope and b is for the y-intercept.

you can see from the graph that the line intercepts the y-axis at y=1 this is the b.

you can get the slope of the graph by taking two points from the graph lets say (1, 2) and (3, 4) then using this formula:

<h2>m = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}  }{x_{2}-x_{1}  }</h2>

in our case it will be:

m=\frac{4-2}{3-1} = \frac{2}{2}=1

then just substitute the values for m and b.

4 0
2 years ago
A science test, which is worth 100 points, consists of 24 questions. Each question is worth either 3 points or 5 points. If x is
Maksim231197 [3]
X + y = 24....multiply by -3
3x + 5y = 100
---------------
-3x - 3y = - 72 (result of multiplying by -3)
3x + 5y = 100
--------------add
2y = 28
y = 28/2
y = 14

x + y = 24
x + 14 = 24
x = 24 - 14
x = 10

solution is (10,14)...and x represents 3 point q's and y represents 5 point q's......so this tells me there are 10 three point q's and 14 five point q's.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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