Answer:
b= -48
Step-by-step explanation:
by transposing,
43=59+b/3
b/3+59=43
b/3=43-59
b/3= -16
b= -16×3
b= -48
therefore the answer is b= -48
hope it helps!!!
PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST..
Yes, 23 has an inverse mod 1000 because gcd(23, 1000) = 1 (i.e. they are coprime).
Let <em>x</em> be the inverse. Then <em>x</em> is such that
23<em>x</em> ≡ 1 (mod 1000)
Use the Euclidean algorithm to solve for <em>x</em> :
1000 = 43×23 + 11
23 = 2×11 + 1
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×11 (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×(1000 - 43×23) (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 23 - 2×1000 + 86×23 (mod 1000)
→ 1 ≡ 87×23 - 2×1000 ≡ 87×23 (mod 1000)
→ 23⁻¹ ≡ 87 (mod 1000)
Answer:
SAS
Step-by-step explanation:
well there exactly ths same you just add what ever inside and subtract forn 180 which is an angle
Answer:
12 dozens of eggs I believe
Step-by-step explanation:
12 eggs are in one dozen
<em>Divide</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>4</em><em>4</em><em> </em><em>by</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>2</em><em>. </em><em> </em><u>1</u><u>4</u><u>4</u><u>÷</u><u>1</u><u>2</u><u>=</u><u>1</u><u>2</u>
Answer:
Its the last one
Step-by-step explanation:
The angle R is supposed to be the letter in the middle which is known as the vertex in an angle,It leads to the angle in degrees forming a proper angle.
It not much information because its hard to explain but,hope this helps!!!.
