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aliya0001 [1]
3 years ago
10

Look at the diagram below of the pythagorean theorem. What is the area of square A?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nezavi [6.7K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

It could be 14M.

Step-by-step explanation:

A to B is similar length, so that is why it could be 14M.

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Which of the following is correct?
Andru [333]

Answer:

none

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer to this question ?
cricket20 [7]
The answer is maybe a or b
8 0
3 years ago
6 friends are sharing a cake. The cake is cut into 15 pieces. How many pieces will each friend get if divided equally
ELEN [110]

Answer:

2.5 or 2 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

15 divided by 6

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the probability that a person is killed by lightning, in a year is, independently of other people, 1/(500 million).
Katen [24]

Answer:

a) P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

The individual pprobabilities are:

P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812

P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287

P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786

And if we replace we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115

b) P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)

And we got:

P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=300000000, p=\frac{1}{500000000})

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

(a) Write down the exact expression for the probability P(3 or more people will be killed by lightning in the U.S. next year). Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

The individual probabilities are:

P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812

P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287

P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786

And if we replace we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115

(b) Write down a relevant approximate expression for the probability from (a). Justify briefly the approximation. Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)

And we got:

P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115

7 0
3 years ago
Two equations are given. m + 5n = 20
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

B. (0, 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

so we need to find the value of m and n, and luckily we have 2 equations that'll help. (I'm going to use the substitution method for this instead of the Elimination method because I am lazy)

first we need to solve for m, but we already have an equation that tells us what m is equal to, m = n - 4.

now we just need to plug in our new m into the other equation and solve for n. (we are using m + 5n = 20 for that)

so now we get

(n - 4) + 5n = 20

so we solve for n

n + 5n = 24

6n = 24

n = 4

now that we know that n is 4, we can plug that into our m equation (m = n - 4)

m = 4 - 4

m = 0

now we have our m and n, and we can make our ordered pair.

(m, n)

(0, 4)

5 0
3 years ago
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