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My name is Ann [436]
3 years ago
13

Gallup conducted a survey from April 1 to 25, 2010, to determine the congressional vote preference of the American voters.15 The

y found that 51% of the male voters preferred a Republican candidate to a Democratic candidate in a sample of 5,490 registered voters. Gallup asks you, their statistical consultant, to tell them whether you could declare the Republican candidate as the likely winner of the votes coming from men if there was an election today. What is your advice
Mathematics
1 answer:
Lisa [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

p ( x > 2746 ) = p ( z > - 1.4552 )

                      = 1 - 0.072806

                      = 0.9272

This shows that there is > 92% of a republican candidate winning the election hence I will advice Gallup to declare the Republican candidate winner

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

51% of male voters preferred a Republican candidate

sample size = 5490

To win the vote one needs ≈ 2746 votes

In order to advice Gallup appropriately lets consider this as a binomial distribution

n = 5490

p = 0.51

q = 1 - 0.51 = 0.49

Hence n_{p} > 5  while n_{q}  < 5

we will consider it as a normal distribution

From the question :

number of male voters who prefer republican candidate  ( mean ) ( u )

= 0.51 * 5490 = 2799.9

std = \sqrt{npq} = \sqrt{5490 * 0.51 *0.49} = 37.0399  ---- ( 1 )

determine the Z-score = (x - u ) / std  ---- ( 2 )

x = 2746 , u = 2799.9 , std = 37.0399

hence Z - score = - 1.4552

hence

p ( x > 2746 ) = p ( z > - 1.4552 )

                      = 1 - 0.072806

                      = 0.9272

This shows that there is > 92% of a republican candidate winning the election hence I will advice Gallup to declare the Republican candidate winner

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A triangle has 2 sides measuring 12cm and 4cm. What could be the possible lengths of the 3rd side. (Please explain in steps)​
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to use the triangle inequality theorem:

12cm, 4cm, xcm

x > 4cm - 12cm

x > -8cm

x < 12cm - 4cm

x < 8cm

-8cm < x < 8cm

5 0
3 years ago
Godfrey plays a game in which he throws two fair six sided dice. If he rolls two sizes, he wins 20p, if he rolls one six, he win
blagie [28]

Answer:

The Probabilty distribution for the amount Godfrey gains in one turn is then given as

X ||| P(X)

15p | 0.0278

5p | 0.278

-5p | 0.6942

Step-by-step explanation:

If random variable X represents the amount Godfrey gains in one turn.

There are 3 different possible outcomes for X.

- Godfrey pays 5p to enter the game and gets two sixes and wins 20p.

Net gain = 15p

Probability of getting two sixes from two fair dice

= (number of outcomes with two sixes) ÷ (total number of outcomes)

number of outcomes with two sixes = 1

total number of possible outcomes = 36

Probability of getting two sides from two fair dice = (1/36) = 0.0278

- Godfrey pays 5p to enter the game and gets only one six and wins 10p.

Net gain = 5p

Probability of getting one six from either of two fair dice

= (number of outcomes with one six) ÷ (total number of outcomes)

number of outcomes with one six = 2 × n[(6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5)] = 2 × 5 = 10

total number of possible outcomes = 36

Probability of getting two sides from two fair dice = (10/36) = 0.278

- Godfrey pays 5p to enter the game and doesn't win anything

Net gain = -5p

Probability of not getting two sixes or one six.

= 1 - [(Probability of getting two sixes) + (Probability of getting one six on.wither dice)]

= 1 - 0.0278 - 0.278 = 0.6942

Probability of getting not getting two sixes or one six = 0.6942

The Probabilty distribution for the amount Godfrey gains in one turn is then given as

X ||| P(X)

15p | 0.0278

5p | 0.278

-5p | 0.6942

Hope this Helps!!!

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is a possible situation for the graph shown?
docker41 [41]

Step-by-step explanation:

but the graph is not given here

4 0
2 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28a%29%20%7B%20-%20%28b%29%7D%5E%7B2%7D%20" id="TexFormula1" title="(a) { - (b)}^{2} " alt="(
Cloud [144]

Answer:

 a - b2

Step-by-step explanation:

STEP  1 :

Trying to factor as a Difference of Squares:

1.1      Factoring:  a-b2  

Theory : A difference of two perfect squares,  A2 - B2  can be factored into  (A+B) • (A-B)

Proof :  (A+B) • (A-B) =

        A2 - AB + BA - B2 =

        A2 - AB + AB - B2 =

        A2 - B2

Note :  AB = BA is the commutative property of multiplication.

Note :  - AB + AB equals zero and is therefore eliminated from the expression.

Check :  a1   is not a square !!

Ruling : Binomial can not be factored as the difference of two perfect squares

Final result :

 a - b2

<u><em>HOPE THIS HELPS!</em></u>

<u><em>PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST! :)</em></u>

7 0
3 years ago
What is the length of the missing leg?
Dmitry [639]

Answer: b = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the Pythagorean theorem

A square + B square = C square

C square - A square = B square

C square - B square = A square

10 - 6 = b --Square it

100 - 36 = 64 (square root)

64 = 8

b = 8 miles

7 0
3 years ago
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