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3 years ago

Which expression is equivalent to 6 + 3 * 4 - 1 / 3

Mathematics

1 answer:

Step2247 [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

12 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

add the integers to get 6+3 + 4 = 13

Now subtract 1/3

13 = 12 + 1 - 1/3

but one is equal to 3/3

12 + 3/3 - 1/3

12 2/3

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How much does the angels add up to in a rectangle

monitta

One of the requirements of a rectangle is that it must have four right angles ( a right angle is 90 degrees) so you just multiply 90 by 4 and you get 360 degrees

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3 years ago

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Pls help me in this khan academy exercise

sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

x= 180° - (103°+33°)

x= 180° - 136°

x= 44°

6 0

2 years ago

Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri

zalisa [80]

Answer:

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is $\mu = 50$

The standard deviation is $\sigma = 1.2$

Considering question a

The sample size is n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.4$

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )$

$\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma } = Z (The \ standardized \ value\ of \ \= X )$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z \ge 2.5 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1- P( Z < 2.5 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 2.5 is

$P( Z < 2.5 ) = 0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

Considering question b

The sample size is n = 40

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.1897$

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z \ge 5.2715 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 5.2715 and

=> $P(Z < 5.2715 ) = 1$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

5 0

2 years ago

WHAT IS 3847 TIMES 4387 AND PLAESE ROUND!!!!!<br> ---------<br> 82364

Andrew [12]

Answer:

16,876,789. 82364 ≈ 82,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's go through this Step by Step.

$3847 * 4387 =\\3847 * 7 = 26929\\3847 * 80 = 307,760\\3847 * 300 = 1,154,100\\3847 * 4000 = 15,388,000$

Now let's go through the Addition.

$26929 + 307,760 = 334,689\\334,689 + 1,154,100 = 1,484,789\\1,484,789 + 15,388,000 = 16,872,789$

Now, we round 82364 to the nearest thousand.

The nearest thousand is 2000. so the answer to this one would be 82000.

hope this helps.

6 0

3 years ago

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K/75 + 57.1 = 40.8<br> k = ?

Ronch [10]

K/75 + 57.1 = 40.8

k/75 = 40.8 - 57.1

k/75 = -16.3

k = -16.3 • 75

k = -1222.5 or -1222 1/2

Hope it helps!

5 0

3 years ago

Which expression is equivalent to 6 + 3 * 4 - 1 / 3 ​

Which expression is equivalent to 6 + 3 * 4 - 1 / 3