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3 years ago

Solve the inequality.

Mathematics

2 answers:

user100 [1]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

k < 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Given inequality :-

k + 4 - 2( k - 12 ) > 0
k + 4 - 2k + 24 > 0
-k + 28 > 0
28 > k
k < 28

Last Option is correct .

Nataly [62]3 years ago

4 0

k<28

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the inequality.

−k+28>0

Step 2: Subtract 28 from both sides.

−k+28−28>0−28

−k>−28

Step 3: Divide both sides by -1.

−k /−1 > −28 /−1

k<28

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If 9% of a number equals 10, find 90% of that number.

rodikova [14]

The answer is 100 % because it’s the same but with two zeros

5 0

4 years ago

Assume that we have m coins. We toss each one of them n times. The probability of heads showing up for each coin isp. What’s the

olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

$1-(1-p^n)^m$

Step-by-step explanation:

For a coin, the probability of head showing in a single toss is $p$ .

$P(H)=p$

Its complement, the probability of not head is

$P(\Sim H)=1-p$

This is a binomial distribution. In $n$ tosses, the probability of having all heads (i.e. $n$ heads) is

$P(\text{all heads})=\binom{n}{n}p^n(1-p)^0=p^n$

Let's call this value $a$ .

For $m$ coins, we determine the probability of at least 1 coin showing all heads by first finding its complement i.e. the probability of no coin showing all heads. This is also a binomial distribution.

$P(\text{no coin showing all heads})=\binom{m}{0}a^0(1-a)^m=(1-a)^m$

$P(\text{at least 1 coin showing all heads})=1-P(\text{no coin showing all heads})$

$P(\text{no coin showing all heads})=1-(1-a)^m=1-(1-p^n)^m$

8 0

4 years ago

Lacy draws a diamond from a standard deck of 52 cards. Without replacing the first card, she then proceeds to draw a second card

Viktor [21]

Answer:

a) i) No

ii) Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade without replacement is 0.0637.

b) i) Yes

ii) Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade with replacement is 0.0625

Step-by-step explanation:

Part a) Without replacement:

i) Are these events independent?

No, because the both events are dependent. because a card taken out of the deck is not replaced back before taking out the other card so the chances of event occur change.

ii) Determine the probability of drawing a diamond and then a spade without replacement.

Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade = (Probability of drawing a diamond) * (Probability of drawing a spade)

Probability of drawing a diamond :

Total cards in deck = 52

Diamonds = 13

Probability of drawing a diamond = 13/52

Probability of drawing a spade:

Total cards in deck after taking diamond = 52 -1 =51

Spades = 13

Probability of drawing a spade = 13/51

Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade = 13/52 * 13/51

= 169/2652

=0.0637

So, Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade without replacement is 0.0637

Part b) With replacements

i) Are these events independent?

Input Yes or No:

Yes, these events are independent because a card taken out of the deck is replaced back before taking out the other card so the chances of event occur doesn't change.

ii) Determine the probability of drawing a diamond and then a spade with replacement.

Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade = (Probability of drawing a diamond) * (Probability of drawing a spade)

Probability of drawing a diamond :

Total cards in deck = 52

Diamonds = 13

Probability of drawing a diamond = 13/52

Probability of drawing a spade:

Total cards in deck after replacing diamond = 52

Spades = 13

Probability of drawing a spade = 13/52

Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade = 13/52 * 13/52

= 169/2704

=0.0625

So, Probability of drawing a diamond and then spade with replacement is 0.0625

7 0

4 years ago

Is (2, 2) a solution of y < 4x – 6?

Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

yes it is, it's best to look at a graphing calculator for future reference

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Solve each system of equations without graphing: 6t-9u=10 and 2t+3u=4

stepladder [879]

Answer:

6t-9u=10

2t+3u=4

t=11/6

u=1/9

Hope This Helps!!!

6 0

3 years ago