Answer:50212.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
B)
Step-by-step explanation:
because 45= 1(45)
the rest don't show it on the table
Answer: $427140
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly, we'll add MP to the profit and this will be:
= Rs 400000 + Rs 20000
= Rs 420000
Since there is a discount of 10%, this will then be:
= 420000 - (10% × 420000)
= 420000 - 42000
= $378000
With a VAT of 13%, then the final price will be:
= $378000 + (13% × $378000)
= $378000 + (0.13 × $378000)
= $378000 + $49140
= $427140
Answer:
<h3>1. 3.98 , 6.134 , 8.015</h3><h3>2. 0.541 , 0.521 , 0.314</h3><h3>3. 19.006 , 19.06 , 19.6</h3><h3>4. 0.7134 , 7.134 , 714.4</h3><h3>5. 590.817 , 5,190.18 , 509.107</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
I HOPE IT HELPS :)