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anzhelika [568]
2 years ago
9

A student paid 256.37 in school fees how much has he paid to the nearest hundred ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
mestny [16]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

uhhh 256.37 is rounded to the nearest hundreth

Unless you mean hundred thwn it would be 300

AleksandrR [38]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

300

Step-by-step explanation:

256.37 5 and 6 is high enoughh to boost that 2 up to a 3

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(x + 5 1/2) 0.75= 5/8 What is x?
swat32
<span>(x + 5 1/2) 0.75= 5/8<span>
Convert 0.75 into a fraction
</span></span><span>(x + 5 1/2) 3/4= 5/8
Use distributive property
3/4x + 5 1/2*3/4 = 5/8
Convert 5 1/2 into improper fraction
3/4x + 11/2*3/4 = 5/8
Multiply
3/4x + 33/8 = 5/8
Subtract 33/8 from both sides
3/4x = 5/8 - 33/8
Subtract the numerators but NOT the denominators
3/4x = -28/8
Divide 3/4 on both sides
x = -28/8 divided by 3/4
Convert the division sign to multiplication while flipping the fraction 3/4 to 4/3
x = -28/8 * 4/3
Multiply
Final Answer: x = -112/24 or -4 16/24 or -4 4/6 or -4 2/3 *All answers are equivalent to each other.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
We add the scale factor to each length of an image to get the scaled copy.<br> -True or False?
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

A scale drawing is a reduced form in terms of dimensions of an original image / building / object

the scale drawing is usually reduced at a constant dimension

original dimensions / scale of the drawing  = dimensions of the scale drawing

To scale an image, divide the original length by the scale

for example the length of the image is 100 and the scale factor is 4

the length of the scale copy = 100/4 = 25

4 0
2 years ago
Describe the transformation
xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
3. Assume that the likelihood of a child under the age of ten watching PBS is 0.76. Three children are
natta225 [31]

Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:

a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.

b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.

c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

For this problem, the values of the parameters are:

n = 3, p = 0.76.

Item a:

The probability is P(X = 2), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.76)^{2}.(0.24)^{1} = 0.4159

Item b:

The probability is P(X < 3), hence:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.76)^{3}.(0.24)^{0} = 0.4390

Then:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.

Item c:

The probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4159 + 0.4390 = 0.8549

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Solve.<br><br> −<br> 2<br> 5<br> x<br> −<br> 9<br> &lt;<br> 9<br> 10
Mademuasel [1]

Step-by-step explanation:

okay so -25 • -9 = 9+10

225 = 9+10

225 = 19

19. 19

= 11.8

8 0
2 years ago
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