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2 years ago

Find the value of f(3) for the function. f(x) = -6(x+2)

Mathematics

2 answers:

gizmo_the_mogwai [7]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

f(3) = -30

Step-by-step explanation:

Function

f(x) = -6(x + 2)

f(3)

Find the value

______________

The original function is -6(x + 2), but the function is saying what if f(3), which means that all x's in the function will be replaced with 3. Do as followed :

f(3) = -6(3 + 2)

Distribute :

f(3) = -18 - 12

-18 - 12

-30

Therefore, f(3) = -30

ludmilkaskok [199]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

f(3)=-30

Step-by-step explanation:

f(3)=-6(x+2)

f(3)=-6(3+2)

f(3)=-6(5)

f(3)=-30

if x is 3, f(3) is -30

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a container with a square bottom, rectangular sides and no top is to e constructed to have a volume of 5 m^3. material for the b

VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

$2m\times 2m\times \frac{5}{4}m$

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a container with square bottom.

Let side of square=x

Height of container=h

Volume of container= $5m^3$

Cost of 1 square meter of material for the bottom=$10

Cost of 1 square meter of material for side=$8

We have to find the dimension of least expensive container.

Volume of container= $x^2h$

$x^2h=5$

$h=\frac{5}{x^2}$

Surface area of container= $x^2+2(x+x)h=x^2+4xh$

Cost= $C(x)=10x^2+8(4xh)=10x^2+32x(\frac{5}{x^2})=10x^2+\frac{160}{x}$

$C(x)=10x^2+\frac{160}{x}$

Differentiate w.r.t x

$\frac{dC}{dx}=20x-\frac{160}{x^2}$

$\frac{dC}{dx}=0$

$20x-\frac{160}{x^2}=0$

$\frac{160}{x^2}=20x$

$x^3=\frac{160}{20}=8$

$x=\sqrt[3]{8}=2$

Because side of container is always positive.

Again differentiate w.r.t x

$\frac{d^2C}{dx^2}=20+\frac{320}{x^3}$

Substitute x=2

$\frac{d^2C}{dx^2}=20+\frac{320}{2^3}=60>0$

Hence, the cost is minimum at x=2

Substitute the value of x

$h=\frac{5}{2^2}=\frac{5}{4}$ m

Hence, the dimensions of the least expensive container are

$2m\times 2m\times \frac{5}{4}m$

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Fourty mins after 4:40 is fourty mins before…

marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

B. 6:00

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 60 minutes in one hour.

To calculate 40 minutes after 4:40, separate 40 minutes into two lots of 20 minutes.

⇒ 4:40 + 20 minutes = 5:00

⇒ 5:00 + 20 minutes = 5:20

Therefore, 40 minutes after 4:40 is 5:20

To calculate the time that 5:20 is 40 minutes before, add 40 minutes to 5:20

⇒ 5:20 + 40 minutes = 6:00

Therefore, the solution is option B. 6:00

7 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE I DESPERATELY NEED HELP WITHH THIS!!!!!!! I’ll give brainless and extra points!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

1. 4x + 6

2. -15x + 11

5. -x + 4

6. -4x + 7

9. 5x - 2

12. x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Remove the parenthesis for each one so everything's out in the open. Next, you group like terms. The numbers with variables on one side, and the other numbers on the other side. For example:

x + 3x - 2 + 8

Then, you combine like terms:

4x + 6

That's mostly how you do each one.

8 0

2 years ago

2x - 6y = 12<br> 2x – 4y = 8

Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

OBEE

Rudik [331]

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8 0

2 years ago