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lora16 [44]
3 years ago
15

What is the better buy?

Mathematics
2 answers:
asambeis [7]3 years ago
8 0
Simply put 12 batteries for 14.76 because 4.80x4=19.2 so if you buy more 3 packs it’s gonna cost you more
White raven [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: Option B is the cheaper deal (the 12 batteries for $14.76)

===========================================================

Explanation:

For the first deal we can say

3 batteries = 4.80 dollars

3/3 batteries = 4.80/3 dollars .... divide both sides by 3

1 battery = 1.60 dollars

The unit price for the first deal is $1.60 per battery.

----------------------------------

For the second deal we could say

12 batteries = 14.76 dollars

12/12 batteries = 14.76/12 dollars .... divide both sides by 12

1 battery = 1.23 dollars

The unit price for the first deal is $1.23 per battery.

This is the cheaper deal.

----------------------------------

So in short, you're dividing the total cost over the number of items to get the unit price.

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Chantelle has signed up for hockey. Her parents set a limit of $400 for costs for the season. It costs $250 to sign up and $5 fo
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

30 times

Step-by-step explanation:

$400 minus $250=$150

$150 divided by $5=30 so she can go 30 times

3 0
3 years ago
Find the quotient:<br> 7/8
telo118 [61]

Answer:

c.) 2 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

i know

3 0
3 years ago
Now evaluate. Substitute −2 for x in the composition f(g(x)) = 4x6 + 4x3 + 1, then simplify. f(g(−2)) =
Viktor [21]
F(g(-2))=4(-2)^6+4(-2)^3+1
f(g(-2))=4(64)+4(-8)+1
f(g(-2))=256-32+1
f(g(-2))=224+1
f(g(-2))=225
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the voltage in an electrical circuit varies with time according to the formula V(t) = 40 sin(t) for t in the interval [0
grigory [225]

The numerical value of the mean voltage is 25.47 V

To find the numerical value of the mean voltage, V of V(t) = 40 sin(t), we integrate V(t) with respect to t over the interval [0.π]

So,

V = \frac{1}{\pi } \int\limits^\pi _0 {V(t)} \, dt \\V = \frac{1}{\pi } \int\limits^\pi _0 {40sint} \, dt \\V = \frac{1}{\pi } [-40cost]_{0}{\pi }  \\V = \frac{1}{\pi } -[40cos\pi  - 40cos0]\\\\V = \frac{1}{\pi } (-[40 X (-1) - 40 X 1})\\V = -\frac{1}{\pi } [-40 - 40]\\V = \frac{80}{\pi } \\V = 25.465 V

V ≅ 25.47 V

So, the numerical value of the mean voltage is 25.47 V

Learn more about mean volatage here:

brainly.com/question/17928028

7 0
3 years ago
Question 5: prove that it’s =0
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Proof in explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.

We know that \cos(\frac{2}{x}) is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).

This means that -1 \le \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le 1.

x^4 \ge 0 for all value x. So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4

By squeeze theorem, if  -x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4

and \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=L, then we can also conclude that \im_{x \rightarrow} x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=L.

So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous  and exist at x=0.

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=0^4=0

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=-0^4=-0=0.

We can finally conclude that \lim_{\rightarrow 0}x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=0 by squeeze theorem.

Some people call this sandwich theorem.

6 0
3 years ago
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