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Personal Purchases.
Mercantile Purchasing.
Industrial Purchasing.
Institutionalized or government purchasing.
Answer:
The answer is NO.
Explanation:
The answer is NO since the tax cut does not equate or rather would not be an effective stimulus due to the fact that debt reduction would not stimulate or increase consumption.
To properly understand the narrative of the question and the answer herein, let us define what effective stimulus is.
Effective stimulus or as preferably known as An economic stimulus is the utilization of funds or design of that helps agitate growth during downtime or recession in a country. The decision makers of a country mostly utilize the tactics of giving rebates and increasing government expenses to name a few.
Now relating it back to the question, since the intention of the rebate is to ease payment on tax does not equate to increase in consumption, the answer is a NO.
This is the situation of countries like Germany,
Where exports > imports...
The results is definitely good for the country. It will increase its trade surplus. This allow the country to amassed a huge number of foreign reserves which they can use to invest abroad..
While countries that import > exports, will experienced trade loss/deficit (just think it like the reverse)
Answer:
Demand drops to zero
Explanation:
Infinite elasticity of demand is also called perfect elasticity of demand.
In this scenario the demand for a product is attached to it's price.
There is an infinite change in the quantity demanded as a result of change in price.
Graphically it is a horizontal demand curve as represented in the attached
Even a small increase in price will cause demand to fall to zero.
Examples are luxury goods such as high end cars and expensive jewelry.
