1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
____ [38]
3 years ago
13

5. Order from least to greatest. 17 94 0.951, 20% 100 Pls help

Mathematics
1 answer:
lina2011 [118]3 years ago
8 0

0.951    20%    17   94   100

You might be interested in
2. 8.SP.1.2
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

A. because the line of best fit has to be at best fit between the points so is a good approximation of where all the points are heading when you try to predict something.

8 0
3 years ago
Guy Please Help Me, I Will Give U An Award If U Give Me The Right Answer And Not Any Link, Just The Answer.
disa [49]

Answer:

It is not a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is what we call a mapping;

Functions do not give multiple output values for a given input value;

As we can see, the input 2 produces an output of 20 and 40, therefore we can tell this is not a function.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kaylee's store sells 3/4 pound of meat for $9. How much would be the price of the meat per pound in her store?
Charra [1.4K]
D there answer is D kdkdkdbdhsbdejsiw
7 0
3 years ago
Please help! thanks so much​
Stels [109]

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can see that \lim_{x \to 2}  (f(x))= -1.

Thus, for the question, we can just plug -1 in:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  =und.

Saying undefined (or unbounded) will be correct.

However, note that as x approaches 2, the values of y decrease in order to get to -1. In other words, f(x) will always be greater or equal to -1 (you can also see this from the graph). This means that as x approaches 2, f(x) will approach -.99 then -.999 then -.9999 until it reaches -1 and then go back up. What is important is that because of this, we can determine that:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  = +\infty

This is because for the denominator, the +1 will always be greater than the f(x). This makes this increase towards positive infinity. Note that limits want the values of the function as it approaches it, not at it.

4 0
3 years ago
Which system of inequalities does the graph represent?
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:system of linear equalities in one variable .

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • ! The snowfall between midnight and 6 A.M.
    11·1 answer
  • Which unit rate is the lowest price a.6oz of chocolate chips for $2.49
    15·1 answer
  • 25 Points!!!!!The designer of a role-playing game uses a function, p(x), to determine the minimum number of experience points a
    8·1 answer
  • You earn $33 in 8 hours. at that rate, how much would you earn in 5 hours?
    10·2 answers
  • Math question number 2:hard! Help!!!!!!
    14·2 answers
  • Ramiya is using the quadratic formula to solve a quadratic equation. Her equation is x = after substituting the values of a, b,
    15·2 answers
  • What is the area of the following circle?
    5·1 answer
  • Solve for g.
    15·1 answer
  • If my teacher has 45 hair pieces and she cuts 38 how many does she have left
    5·1 answer
  • What is 7/14 fractions im in class and i dont know.? Can anyone help me????.
    5·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!