1-0/-1-0 = -1
Y- 0 = -(x-0)
Y=-x
Y - 1 = -(x+1)
Y-1= -x-1
Y = -x
Answer:
A = 693
Step-by-step explanation:
The shape presented is a parallelogram, and the formula for this is:
A = bh
The "b," is the base (21) and the "h," is the height (33), so plug this in:
A = (21)(33)
A = 693
let's recall that the graph of a function passes the "vertical line test", however, that's not guarantee that its inverse will also be a function.
A function that has an inverse expression that is also a function, must be a one-to-one function, and thus it must not only pass the vertical line test, but also the horizontal line test.
Check the picture below, the left-side shows the function looping through up and down, it passes the vertical line test, in green, but it doesn't pass the horizontal line test.
now, check the picture on the right-side, if we just restrict its domain to be squeezed to only between [0 , π], it passes the horizontal line test, and thus with that constraint in place, it's a one-to-one function and thus its inverse is also a function, with that constraint in place, or namely with that constraint, cos(x) and cos⁻¹(x) are both functions.
Answer:
represented by the graph of a straight line through the origin with a slope equal to the unit rate.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each point (x, y) on the graph, ž is equal to k, where k is the unit rate.