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3 years ago

How can mechanical waves help in the treatment of cancer?

Physics

2 answers:

Veronika [31]3 years ago

6 0

Beams of X-rays are targeted at a cancerous tumor from outside the body

Explanation:

Mechanical waves helps to treat cancer when beams of x-rays are targeted at a cancerous tumor from outside the body. These beams are energetic and ionizing. This will cause severe destruction of the cancerous cell.

In cancer therapy, ionizing radiations are used to destroy cancerous cells in living organisms.
Controlled doses of some forms of radiations are particularly known good medical procedures for curing cancer.
Other options are not ways in which mechanical waves helps to treat cancer.

learn more:

Lung cancer brainly.com/question/2533779

#learnwithBrainly

Aleks04 [339]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The answer would be D

Explanation:

Just did it on ed

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A ball with an initial velocity of 8.00 m/s rolls up a hill without slipping. (a) Treating the ball as a spherical shell, calcul

GrogVix [38]

Answer:

Part i)

h = 5.44 m

Part ii)

h = 3.16 m

Explanation:

Part i)

Since the ball is rolling so its total kinetic energy in this case will convert into gravitational potential energy

So we have

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh$

here we know that for spherical shell and pure rolling conditions

$v = R \omega$

$I = \frac{2}{3}mR^2$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{2}{3}mR^2)(\frac{v^2}{R^2}) = mgh$

$\frac{5}{6}mv^2 = mgh$

$h = \frac{5v^2}{6g}$

$h = \frac{5(8^2)}{6(9.81)} = 5.44 m$

Part b)

If ball is not rolling and just sliding over the hill then in that case

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh$

$h = \frac{v^2}{2g}$

$h = \frac{8^2}{2(9.81)} = 3.16 m$

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3 years ago

Quick Physics Question

sveticcg [70]

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How do you think that changing the mass of the pendulum bob will affect the period of the pendulum swing?

myrzilka [38]

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

Initially, a 2.00-kg mass is whirling at the end of a string (in a circular path of radius 0.750 m) on a horizontal frictionless

drek231 [11]

Answer:

$v_f = 15 \frac{m}{s}$

Explanation:

We can solve this problem using conservation of angular momentum.

The angular momentum $\vec{L}$ is

$\vec{L} = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}$

where $\vec{r}$ is the position and $\vec{p}$ the linear momentum.

We also know that the torque is

$\vec{\tau} = \frac{d\vec{L}}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} ( \vec{r} \times \vec{p} )$

$\vec{\tau} = \frac{d}{dt} \vec{r} \times \vec{p} + \vec{r} \times \frac{d}{dt} \vec{p}$

$\vec{\tau} = \vec{v} \times \vec{p} + \vec{r} \times \vec{F}$

but, as the linear momentum is $\vec{p} = m \vec{v}$ this means that is parallel to the velocity, and the first term must equal zero

$\vec{v} \times \vec{p}=0$

$\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}$

But, as the only horizontal force is the tension of the string, the force must be parallel to the vector position measured from the vertical rod, so

$\vec{\tau}_{rod} = 0$