Answer:
--6+36m
Step-by-step explanation:
The point that the graphs of f and g have in common are (1,0)
<h3>How to get the points?</h3>
The given functions are:
f(x) = log₂x
and
g(x) = log₁₀x
We know that logarithm of 1 is always zero.
This means that irrespective of the base, the y-values of both functions will be equal to 0 at x=1
Therefore the point the graphs of f and g have in common is (1,0).
Learn more about graph on:
brainly.com/question/19040584
#SPJ1
Answer:
The inverse f-1(x) = ( x - 2) / 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let 2x + 1 = y
Now find x in terms of y:
2x = y - 1
x = (y - 1) / 2
Replace the x by the inverse f-1(x) and the y by x, so we have:
f-1(x) = ( x - 2) / 2.
Answer:
Neither.
Step-by-step explanation:
you are correct about the pattern, so it's not adding the same number and not multiplying by the same number. So it's neither.
Answer:
the number of pints of blue paint did she use for painting her bedroom walls is 1.875 pints
Step-by-step explanation:
The computation of the number of pints of blue paint did she use for painting her bedroom walls is shown below:
= Total pint × blue paint
= 7.5 × (1 - 3 ÷ 4)
= 7.5 × 1 ÷ 4
= 1.875 pints
Hence, the number of pints of blue paint did she use for painting her bedroom walls is 1.875 pints
