The answer would be <span><span>f<span>−1</span></span><span>(x)</span></span>=<span>√<span>36+x</span></span>,<span>−<span>√<span>36+<span>x. I didn't know it in word form :(</span></span></span></span>
Answer:
Explanation:
You can convert the percent markup into a multiplicative factor in this way:
Base price: 15,800 . . . (cost to the seller)
Percent mark up: 115% . . . (based on the cost to the seller)
Sale price: 15,800 + 115% of x = 15,800 + 115 × 15,800 /100 =
= 15,800 + 1.15 × 15,800 = 15,800 (2.15) = 33,970
The markup is:
- Markup = price paid by the seller - cost to the seller = 33,970 - 15,800 = 18,170 (notice that this is 115% of 15,800)
And <em>the percent markup based on the sale price is</em>:
- % = (markup / sale price) × 100 = (18,700 / 33,970) × 100 =
= 53.49 %
Rounding to the nearest tenth percent that is 53.5 %.
2x^2=4x
I'm pretty sure this is it because there are only 2 like terms so you can't combine anything with 4x.
Leslie did. If you multiply 4/5 by two, you get 8/10. 8/10 is greater than 7/10.
Answer: Hello the options related to your question is missing attached below are the missing options.
A.) The probabilities of the RVs may be equal
B.) The sum of the probabilities of the RVs exceed 1
C.) This is an impossible occurrence
D.) The probabilities of the RVs must be equal
E.) None of the above
answer:
The probabilities of the RVs may be equal ( A )
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that the value of the population mean and the value of probability mass function of a set of random variables are similar
For the Random Variables : 100,200,300,400
The Probability mass function of RV = ( 100 + 200 + 300 + 400 ) / 4
Hence The probabilities of the RVs may be equal
