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ira [324]
3 years ago
7

Find the median of the numbers: 5, 4, 10, 3, 3, 4, 7, 4, 6, 5.

Mathematics
1 answer:
vredina [299]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4.5 ywww

Step-by-step explanation:

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. All CD’s are on sale for 20% this week. The CD is $9.99. What is the original price of the CD?
yan [13]

Answer:

$12.49

Step-by-step explanation:

9.99 divided by .8

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3 years ago
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How do I verify #15 using fundamental trig identities?
expeople1 [14]

We start with the more complicated side which is the left side, and show that, on using some trigonometric identities, we will get the term on the right side .

\frac{sin \theta + tan \theta}{1+cos \theta}

Using Quotient identity for tangent function, we will get

\frac{sin \theta+ \frac{sin \theta}{cos \theta}}{1+cos \theta}

\frac{sin \theta cos \theta + sin \theta}{cos \theta(1+cos \theta)}

Taking out sine function from the numerator

=\frac{sin \theta(1+cos \theta)}{cos \theta(1+cos \theta)}

Cancelling the common term of numerator and denominator

=\frac{sin \theta}{cos \theta} = tan \theta

7 0
3 years ago
In our Solar system six of the eight planets have moons what percentage of the planets have moons
Vladimir79 [104]
75%
you just divide 6/8
7 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
Plz help me
statuscvo [17]

Answer: 12+4+4

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if you add those together you get 20 miles per hour

5 0
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