In your own words,explain why creating a budget and sticking to it is so important. Answer in at least 3-5 complete sentences.

You are the manager of a firm that manufactures front and rear windshields for the automobile industry. Due to economies of scal

Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

a. The optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0)

b. Yes, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because $\pi ^{Cheat}$ > $\pi ^{Cooperate}$ .

Explanation:

a. Determine your optimal pricing strategy if you and your rival believe that the new Highlander is a "special edition" that will be sold only for one year.

Note: See the attached excel file for the Representation of one shot normal for of the game played between "You" and "Your Rival" together with the payoffs.

From the attached excel file, the dominant strategy is for “You” and “Your Rival” to charge “Low Price” each. If the dominant strategy is played by “You” and “Your Rival”, the optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0).

b. Would your answer differ if you and your rival were required to resubmit price quotes year after year and if, in any given year, there was a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander? Explain.

When we have a year-after-year competition between “You” and “Your Rival” but with a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander, the payoffs of the firm that continue to comply with the collusive strategy of charging “High Price” by each firm under the normal trigger strategy whereby “You” and “Your Rival” agree to charge high price as long as there is no past deviation by any of the firm, otherwise charge a low price is as follows:

$\pi ^{Cooperate}$ = $6 + $6(100% - 60%) + $6(100% - 60%)^2 + 6(100% - 60%)^2 …….

$\pi ^{Cooperate}$ = $6 / 6% = $10

Therefore, what the firm that cheats earn today is $11 million and it earns $0 forever. The implication of this is that $\pi ^{Cheat}$ = $11

Therefore, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because $\pi ^{Cheat}$ > $\pi ^{Cooperate}$ .

Download xlsx

7 0

3 years ago

At the beginning of this month, the balance of Cody's checking account was $125.26. So far this month, he has received a paychec

ddd [48]

The answer is going to be d

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Shadee Corp. expects to sell 550 sun visors in May and 380 in June. Each visor sells for $12. Shadee’s beginning and ending fini

djyliett [7]

Answer:

August = $5, 472

September = $5,419

Explanation:

Shadee Corporation

Cash Receipt Budget

For the month of August & September

August September

Sales Volume 460 470

Price per unit 12 12

Total Sales $5,520 $5,640

60% Cash Sales $3,312 $3,384

Credit Sales:

54% collected in the month of sales

$1,192 $1,218

37% collected in the following month

$968 (1) $817

Total budgeted cash receipt

$5,472 $5,419

Note: (1)

37% of July's credit sale will be collected in the month of August. Therefore,

July's total sales = 545 × 12 = $6540

60% of them is cash = $3,924

Remaining is credit = $2,616

37% of credit sales = $2,616 × 37% = $968

7 0

3 years ago

E-Eyes has a new issue of preferred stock it calls 20/20 preferred. The stock will pay a $20 dividend per year, but the first di

brilliants [131]

Answer:

$25.86.

Explanation:

To address this problem we first calculate the present value of all dividend received at time t = 20, then we discount that sum to time t = 0 (now).

The cashflow pattern of this preferred stock is similar to perpetuty.

Stock value at time t = 20 = Dividend/Required rate of return = 20/10.5% = 190.48

Stock value at time t = 0 = (Stock value at time t = 20)/(1 + Required rate of return)^20 = 190.48/(1 + 10.5%)^20 = 25.86.

6 0

3 years ago

The partnership of Anderson, Berry, Hammond, and Winwood is being liquidated. It currently holds cash of $20,000 but no other as

Rashid [163]

Answer:

a. Contribution from Berry = $6,000

b-1. Contribution from Hammond = $22,556

b-2. Disbursement shall be:

Anderson = $8,889

Berry = $3,667

c. Amount to be received by Anderson on Liquidation = $11,500

Explanation:

As for the provided information we have,

Capital balances

Anderson 40% $20,000

Berry 30% $12,000

Hammond 20% $17,000 (Deficit)

Winwood 10% $25,000 (Deficit)

a. Total deficit in this case will be = Share of Hammond + Winwood = $17,000 + $25,000 = $42,000

Berry's share = $\frac{30}{30+40} \times 42,000 = 18,000$

Since Berry's current balance = $12,000

Contribution required = $18,000 - $12,000 = $6,000

b-1. Total deficit of Winwood = $25,000

Hammond share = $\frac{20}{20+30+40} \times 25,000 = 5,556$

Hammond's current balance = - $17,000

Thus, contribution from Hammond = $5,556 + $17,000 = $22,556

b-2. Total deficit balance = $17,000 + $25,000 = $42,000

Total sufficient balance = $20,000 + $12,000 = $32,000

Net deficit balance = $42,000 - $32,000 = $10,000

Anderson share in Deficit of Winwood = $25,000 \times \frac{40}{40 + 30 +20} = 11,111$

Thus, net capital of Anderson = $20,000 - $11,111 = $8,889

Berry's share in deficit of Winwood = $25,000 \times \frac{30}{40+30+20} = 8,333$

Thus, net capital from Berry = $12,000 - $8,333 = $3,667

c. Total deficit from Hammond = $17,000

Anderson share = $17,000 \times \frac{40}{40+30+10} = 8,500$

Anderson's current balance = $20,000

Amount extra contributed by Anderson = $20,000 - $8,500 = $11,500

Thus, Anderson will receive $11,500 on liquidation.

Final Answer

a. Contribution from Berry = $6,000

b-1. Contribution from Hammond = $22,556

b-2. Disbursement shall be:

Anderson = $8,889

Berry = $3,667

c. Amount to be received by Anderson on Liquidation = $11,500

3 0

3 years ago