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kow [346]
3 years ago
10

Plzzz help me with this I’ll give brainliest

Physics
2 answers:
Kruka [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A

Explanation:

zysi [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(A) By reducing friction

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Potential difference is measured in units called
Masja [62]

Answer: Volt

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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In an LC circuit at one time the charge stored by the capacitor is 10 mC and the current is 3.0 A. If the frequency of the circu
Ronch [10]

Answer:

i_2=3.61\ A

Explanation:

<u>LC Circuit</u>

It's a special circuit made of three basic elements: The AC source, a capacitor, and an inductor. The charge, current, and voltage are oscillating when there is an interaction between the electric and magnetic fields of the elements. The following variables will be used for the formulas:

q, q_1, q_2 = charge of the capacitor in any time t, t_1, t_2

q_o = initial charge of the capacitor

\omega=angular frequency of the circuit

i, i_1, i_2 = current through the circuit in any time t, t_1, t_2

The charge in an LC circuit is given by

q(t) = q_0 \, cos (\omega t )

The current is the derivative of the charge

\displaystyle i(t) = \frac{dq(t)}{dt} = - \omega q_0 \, sin(\omega t).

We are given

q_1=10\ mc=0.01\ c, i_1=3\ A,\ q_2=6\ mc=0.006\ c\ ,\ f=\frac{1000}{4\pi}

It means that

q(t_1) = q_0 \, cos (\omega t_1 )=q_1\ .......[eq 1]

i(t_1) = - \omega q_0 \, sin(\omega t_1)=i_1.........[eq 2]

From eq 1:

\displaystyle cos (\omega t_1 )=\frac{q_1}{q_0}

From eq 2:

\displaystyle sin(\omega t_1)=-\frac{i_1}{\omega q_0}

Squaring and adding the last two equations, and knowing that

sin^2x+cos^2x=1

\displaystyle \left ( \frac{q_1}{q_0} \right )^2+\left ( \frac{i_1}{\omega q_0} \right )^2=1

Operating

\displaystyle \omega^2q_1^2+i_1^2=\omega^2q_o^2

Solving for q_o

\displaystyle q_o=\frac{\sqrt{\omega^2q_1^2+i_1^2}}{\omega}

Now we know the value of q_0, we repeat the procedure of eq 1 and eq 2, but now at the second time t_2, and solve for i_2

\displaystyle \omega^2q_2^2+i_2^2=\omega^2q_o^2

Solving for i_2

\displaystyle i_2=w\sqrt{q_o^2-q_2^2}

Now we replace the given values. We'll assume that the placeholder is a pi for the frequency, i.e.

\displaystyle f=\frac{1}{4\pi}\ KHz

w=2\pi f=500\ rad/s

\displaystyle q_o=\frac{\sqrt{(500)^2(0.01)^2+3^2}}{500}

q_0=0.01166\ c

Finally

\displaystyle i_2=500\sqrt{0.01166^2-.006^2}

i_2=5\ A

3 0
3 years ago
The acceleration of the car with the data in the table above would be
neonofarm [45]

The acceleration of the car would be 0.33 first and then it would be 0.17.

<u>Explanation:</u>

An applied force is a force that is applied to an object by an individual or another item. On the off chance that an individual is pushing a work area over the room, at that point there is an applied power following up on the article. The applied power is the power applied on the work area by the individual.

The net force applied to the object rises to the mass of the article increased by the measure of its acceleration. The net power following up on the soccer ball is equivalent to the mass of the soccer ball duplicated by its adjustment in speed each second (its acceleration).

6 0
3 years ago
Objects 1 and 2 attract each other with a electrostatic force of 72.0 units. If the distance separating objects 1 and 2 is chang
qaws [65]

Answer:

288.0 units; that is the electrostatic force of attraction become quadruple of its initial value.

Explanation:

If all other parameters are constant,

Electrostatic Force of attraction ∝ (1/r²)

F = (k/r²) = 72.0

If r₁ = r/2, what happens to F₁

F₁ = (k/r₁²) = k/(r/2)² = (4k/r²) = 4F = 4 × 72 = 288.0 units

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why is the law of buoyancy considered a law?
solong [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

because it is a function of physics that will always be true, hope this helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
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