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Stella [2.4K]
3 years ago
9

160 is what % of 40 plz explain

Mathematics
1 answer:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

150%

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because you can make a part to whole ratio where you have x/100 (which would symbolize the percent) and 160/40 (which would symbolize the part) then, multiply 160 by 100 to get 16000 and then divide by 40 to fulfill the x. Hope this helps!

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Determine whether set of values represents an inverse variation. If yes, identify the constant of variation and write an inverse
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SOLUTION

If the table represents an inverse variation, it means that y is inversely proportional to x, written as

\begin{gathered} y\propto\frac{1}{x} \\ \propto is\text{ a sign of proportionality } \end{gathered}

Removing the proportionality sign and introducing a constant k, we have

\begin{gathered} y=k\times\frac{1}{x} \\ y=\frac{k}{x} \end{gathered}

In the first column, we have x = -4 and y = 3.5. Substituting these values for x and y, we have

\begin{gathered} y=\frac{k}{x} \\ 3.5=\frac{k}{-4} \\ k=3.5\times-4 \\ k=-14 \end{gathered}

So, if it's an inverse variation, the relationship would be

y=\frac{-14}{x}

In the second column, x = -2 and y = 7.

Now lets substitute the value of x for -2. If we get y to be 7, then the relationship is an inverse variation

We have

\begin{gathered} y=\frac{-14}{x} \\ y=\frac{-14}{-2} \\ y=7 \end{gathered}

Since we got y = 7, the relationship is therefore an inverse variation.

The constant k = -14

The equation for the inverse variation is

y=\frac{-14}{x}

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2.1= 1/2 2.1 x 10 = 21

2.1 / 2 = 1.05

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