Answer:
10%
25.14 years
Explanation:
A financial calculator can be used to solve these problems
PMT = $-1,100
PV = $5,355.26
FV = 0
N = 7
Compute I = 10%
PMT = $-25,000
FV = $1,387,311
I = 6%
PV = 0
Compute N = 25.14 years
Answer:
Income effect
Explanation:
The effect is because the customer purchasing power has been changed due to which he is now able to buy more to fulfill his needs and wants. The income effect occurs due to two reasons.
Number 1. The real income of the person has been increased which means his purchasing power has been increased. This means previously you were earning $2000 a month and now you are earning $10000 a month. Now you can buy New Iphone every month because your real income has been increased and this has increased your purchasing power.
Number 2. The price of the product has been fallen and now it is in range of the purchasing power of the customer. This means that if Iphones 11 are available at $100 then everybody buy Iphone 11. This is because the product is in the range of purchasing power of greater number of customers.
Answer:
Explanation:
Prepare a post-closing trial balance.Step 9
Prepare an adjusted trial balance.Step 6
Analyze business transactions.Step 1
Prepare a trial balance.Step 4
Journalize the transactions.Step 2
Journalize and post closing entries.Step 8
Prepare financial statements.Step 7
Journalize and post adjusting entries.Step 5
Post to ledger accounts.Step 3
Answer:
b. $.66
Explanation:
The computation of the per share value for the one year is
Given that
Current Price = $43
Possible Prices = $42 and $46
Now
u = [($46 - $43) ÷ $43] + 1
= 1.06977
And
d = 1 - [($42 - $43) ÷ $43]
= 0.9767
And,
Risk-Free Rate = T-Bill Rate = Rf = 4.1 %
Now the up move price probability is
= [(1 + Rf) - d] ÷ [u - d]
= [(1.041) - 0.9767] ÷ [1.06977 - 0.9767]
= 0.69088
And,
Exercise Price = $ 45
Now
If the Price is $42, so Payoff = $0
And
if the Price is $46, so Payoff =is
= ($46 - $45)
= $1
Finally the call price is
= [0.69088 × 1 + (1 - 0.69088) × 0] ÷ 1.041
= $0.66367
= $0.66