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Ipatiy [6.2K]
3 years ago
9

Estimate the volume of each ball. Use the formula

Physics
2 answers:
Mila [183]3 years ago
6 0

The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:

Estimate the volume of each ball. Use the formula v=\frac{4\pi\times r^3}{3} where v is the volume and r is the radius. record the volume in table A of your student guide. The radius of the tennis ball is 2.1 cm and the radius of thr golf ball is 2.0 cm. What is the estimated volume of the table tennis ball in cm^3
 What is the estimated volume of the golf ball in

Answer: Volume of the tennis ball is 38.8cm^3 and  Volume of the golf ball is 33.5cm^3

Explanation:

We have to find the Volume of tennis ball and golf ball by using the formula v=\frac{4\pi\times r^3}{3}

Radius of the tennis ball = 2.1 cm

Radius  of the golf ball =2.0 cm.

Putting the value of radius in the formula , we get:

Volume of the tennis ball =  \frac{4\times 3.14\times (2.1cm)^3}{3}
=38.8cm^3

Volume of the golf ball =   \frac{4\times 3.14\times (2.0cm)^3}{3}
=33.5cm^3

Volume of the tennis ball is 38.8cm^3 and  Volume of the golf ball is 33.5cm^3

astraxan [27]3 years ago
4 0

it's  38.8 and 33.5 hope this helps

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Answer:

21870.3156 N

Explanation:

u = Initial velocity

v = Final velocity

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v^2-u^2=2as\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2s}\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{0^2-18.2^2}{2\times 162}\\\Rightarrow a=-1.02234\ m/s^2

The acceleration of the craft should be 1.02234 m/s²

F=ma\\\Rightarrow F=8.34\times 10^3\times 1.02234\\\Rightarrow F=8526.3156\ N

Weight of the craft

W=mg\\\Rightarrow W=8.34\times 10^3\times 1.6\\\Rightarrow W=13344\ N

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F_t=F+W\\\Rightarrow F_t=8526.3156+13344\\\Rightarrow F_t=21870.3156\ N

The thrust needed to reduce the velocity to zero at the instant when the craft touches the lunar surface is 21870.3156 N

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Alex787 [66]

Answer:

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2 years ago
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a circular loop is hanging on the wall. it has a radius of 33.3 cm and is comprised of 12 coils. there is a magnetic field perpe
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

I = 2.19A, anticlockwise direction.

Explanation:

Given r = 33cm = 0.33m, N = 12, ΔB = 7.5 - 1.5 = 6.0T, Δt = 3s, R = 3.75Ω

By Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction when there is a change in flux in a coil or loop, an emf is induced in the coil or loop which is proportional to the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the loop.

The emf E is related to the flux by the formula

E = – NdФ/dt

Where N = number of turns in the coil, Ф = magnetic flux through the loop = BA, B = magnetic field strength, A = Area

In this problem the strength of the magnetic field changes. As a result the flux too changes and an emf is induced in the coil.

So

ΔФ = ΔB×A = ΔB×πr² = 6×π×0.33² = 2.05Wb

E = -NΔФ/Δt = 12×2.05/3 = 8.2V

I = E/R = 8.2/ 3.75 = 2.19A

The direction of the current can be found by pointing the thumb of your right hand in the direction of the magnetic field and curling the remaining fingers around this direction. The direction of the curl of these fingers give the direction of current which in this case is anticlockwise.

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Rearranging to find the time we have,

t = \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}

Then, the sound of the splash take a time \frac{h}{v} to travel back, therefore, in time, it is necessary to adhere the new term, which converts the final time into:

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