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Mnenie [13.5K]
3 years ago
9

WILL MARK BRAINLIEST What is the value of j?

Mathematics
2 answers:
LenKa [72]3 years ago
4 0
I physically cannot tell you
andre [41]3 years ago
4 0
The value of J is 61°, subtract 90° by 29°
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Study the function below. f(x) = –3x Label the function as proportional or non-proportional. Explain your reasoning.
Nimfa-mama [501]
Y = f(x) = -3x y = -3x y = (constant) x y is proportional to x.<span> Hence we can say Y is proportional to x , having (-3) as proportionality Constant. hope this helps</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Becky tells her friend about the Rule of 72 and her friend immediately
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

  a. the investment earns 4%

  b. yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The "rule of 72" says that an investment earning compound interest at x% will double in value after 72/x years. That is, ...

  f(x) = 72/x

__

<h3>a.</h3>

We interpret f(4) to mean Becky's friend is interested in the doubling time for an investment that earns 4% interest.

__

<h3>b.</h3>

Using the above formula, ...

  f(4) = 72/4 = 18

The friend's math is correct.

3 0
2 years ago
6. Consider the polynomial p(x) = x^2 + kr^2 +x+6. Find a value of k so that x+1 is a factor of P. Find all the zeros of P.​
Nikitich [7]

If <em>x</em> + 1 is a factor of <em>p(x)</em> = <em>x</em>³ + <em>k</em> <em>x</em>² + <em>x</em> + 6, then by the remainder theorem, we have

<em>p</em> (-1) = (-1)³ + <em>k</em> (-1)² + (-1) + 6 = 0   →   <em>k</em> = -4

So we have

<em>p(x)</em> = <em>x</em>³ - 4<em>x</em>² + <em>x</em> + 6

Dividing <em>p(x)</em> by <em>x</em> + 1 (using whatever method you prefer) gives

<em>p(x)</em> / (<em>x</em> + 1) = <em>x</em>² - 5<em>x</em> + 6

Synthetic division, for instance, might go like this:

-1   |   1    -4     1     6

...   |         -1    5    -6

----------------------------

...   |   1    -5    6     0

Next, we have

<em>x</em>² - 5<em>x</em> + 6 = (<em>x</em> - 3) (<em>x</em> - 2)

so that, in addition to <em>x</em> = -1, the other two zeros of <em>p(x)</em> are <em>x</em> = 3 and <em>x</em> = 2

6 0
3 years ago
Help ASAP-----------------
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:  

subtract 32 and 14

6 0
3 years ago
What fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup
Aleonysh [2.5K]
<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
8 0
3 years ago
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