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fomenos
3 years ago
8

Find the value of each expression mentally. 50÷100

Mathematics
2 answers:
irina [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.5 or 2 if you meant 100/50

Step-by-step explanation:

VLD [36.1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: 0.5

You might be interested in
Comparing and Extending Ratios
son4ous [18]
I think she is correct because if u divide 100 to 5 u'll get 20 and if u divide 40 to 2 u'll get 20 so yea
6 0
3 years ago
The second one is -3
frez [133]

Answer:

what are u talking about

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
A used CD is a dollar more than one third the price of a new CD. If a new CD costs $18, how much is a used CD
Veseljchak [2.6K]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP !! IT WOULD BE GREATLY APPREACIATED ! I DONT KNOW HOW TO DO THIS
serg [7]

(A) Bella's TV ratio of sides: 36"/27" = 1.333...

Lenny's: 52"/29.25" = 1.777...

Bella's and Lenny's TVs are NOT similar - their side ratios are different. Bella's is 4:3 while Lenny's is close to 16:9.

(B) Bella's TV has an exact ratio of 4:3 (36/27=4/3) and so is the older type.

Lenny's TV has a ratio of 52"/29.25". Divide both 52 and 29.25 by 3.25 to get 16/9, or 16:9. So Lenny's is the newer type.


4 0
3 years ago
Which describes the behavior of the function f(x)= tan^-1(x)?
Fantom [35]

Answer:

Third Option

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the function tan(x) is defined as y=\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}. Since the denominator is cos(x) then we know that  cos(x)=0  when x=\frac{\pi}{2}

We also know that the division by 0 is not defined. Therefore, the limit of y=tan(x) when "x" tends to \frac{\pi}{2} is infinite.

The function tan^{-1}(x) is the inverse of tan(x)

By definition, if we have a function f(x), its domain will be equal to the range of its inverse function f^{-1}(x). If f(3)=8, then f^{-1}(8)=3

This also happens for the function tan^{-1}(x)

If when x \to \frac{\pi}{2}, tan(x) \to \infty then when x \to \infty, tan^{-1}x \to \frac{\pi}{2}

Then, the answer is:

x \to \infty, f(x) \to \frac{\pi}{2}

7 0
2 years ago
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