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Oliga [24]
3 years ago
9

!!!10 points + brainly!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
mamaluj [8]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The number of fours divided by the total number of possibilities. If there are two fours and 8 spaces, the probability is 2/8 = 1/4.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which of the following statements are true?
morpeh [17]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 0 lbs of sugar is required to make 0 muffins

I hope this is right

4 0
3 years ago
You might need: CalculatorThe angle O, is located in Quadrant III, and sin((.)1213What is the value of cos((,)?Express your answ
Wewaii [24]

We know that:

\sin (\theta_1)=-\frac{12}{13}

There is also an interesting property that relates the sine and the cosine of an angle:

\sin ^2(\theta_1)+\cos ^2(\theta_1)=1

We can find the cosine of theta using this equation:

\begin{gathered} \cos ^2(\theta_1)=1-\sin ^2(\theta_1) \\ \cos (\theta_1)=\sqrt{1-\sin^2(\theta_1)} \\ \cos (\theta_1)=\sqrt[]{1-(-\frac{12}{13})^2} \\ \lvert\cos (\theta_1)\rvert=\sqrt[]{1-\frac{144}{169}}=\sqrt[]{\frac{25}{169}} \\ \lvert\cos (\theta_1)\rvert=\frac{5}{13} \end{gathered}

Since theta is in the third quadrant then its cosine must be a negative number so:

\cos (\theta_1)=-\frac{5}{13}

3 0
1 year ago
Explain the step(s) needed to solve 4+ p = 1 and then solve for p
liberstina [14]

Answer:

p = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Apply algebra to the equation by subtracting 4 from each side, that way it will cancel out at least the 4 next to p. It should now look like this: p = -3

Because we can't make anymore moves and the expression clearly states what p is, we're done!

4 0
3 years ago
Miguel is playing a game in which a box contains four chips with numbers written on them. Two of the chips have the number 1, on
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer:

P(X_i=2) =\dfrac{1}{6}

P(X_i=-1) =\dfrac{5}{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the numbers on the chips = 1, 1, 3 and 5

Miguel chooses two chips.

Condition of winning: Both the chips are same i.e. 1 and 1 are chosen.

Miguel gets $2 on winning and loses $1 on getting different numbers.

To find:

Probability of winning $2 and losing $1 respectively.

Solution:

Here, we are given 4 numbers 1, 1, 3 and 5 out of which 2 numbers are to be chosen.

This is a simple selection problem.

The total number of ways of selecting r numbers from n is given as:

_nC_r = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Here, n = 4 and r = 2.

So, total number of ways = _4C_2  = \frac{4!}{2!\times 2!} = 6

Total number of favorable cases in winning = choosing two 1's from two 1's i.e. _2C_2 = \frac{2!}{2! 0! } = 1

Now, let us have a look at the formula of probability of an event E:

P(E) = \dfrac{\text{Number of favorable ways}}{\text{Total number of ways}}

So, the probability of winning.

P(X_i=2) =\dfrac{1}{6}

Total number of favorable cases for -1: (6-1) = 5

So, probability of getting -1:

P(X_i=-1) =\dfrac{5}{6}

Please refer to the attached image for answer table.

7 0
3 years ago
(9+8)+32=49 which property is this
Sergio [31]
Associativity means
(A+B)+C=A+(B+C)=A+B+C

Substitute A=9, B=8, C=32 to apply to this problem.
6 0
3 years ago
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