18.55 Hope this help that will be your answer have a good day or night.
Answer: it would be 12
Step-by-step explanation: because if you times 12 twice you would get 144
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
80
Step-by-step explanation:
the 80 is the tenth part so you do nothing its a trip up qustion
We need to express this statement into a equation:
First of all. We will walk through the statement step by step into a mathematical language, so:
1. The sum of five and x:
x + 5
2. Twice the sum of five and x:
2(x + 5)
3. Eight less than x:
(x-8)
Finally the whole statement is:
4. <span>Twice the sum of five and x is eight less than x:
</span>
2(x + 5) = (x-8)
2x + 10 = x - 8
x = -18
