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Ira Lisetskai [31]
3 years ago
5

As thermal energy is added to a sample of water, the kinetic energy of its

Physics
1 answer:
Nesterboy [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

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When the pendulum bob reaches the mean position, the net force acting on it is zero. Why then does it swing past the mean positi
ryzh [129]

Answer:

<u>The pendulum bob swing past the mean position because:</u>

When a pendulum's bob is accelerating at its extreme position its velocity is zero. Due to  the restoring toque the bob starts to accelerates towards its mean postion. The  maximum acceleration of the pendulum's bob  is -w^{2} Aand the the acceleration decreases as -w^{2} x  towards the mean position.

The acceleration at the mean position becomes zero but the velocity remains maximum. Hence the bob continues to move and does not stops.Thus it can summarised as the force decreases ,acceleration decreases and velocity increases at slow rate.

6 0
3 years ago
A depiction of a famous scientific experiment is given. Consider how the beam changes when the magnet is off compared to when th
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

The beam used is a negatively charged electron beam with a velocity of

v = E / B

Explanation:

After reading this long statement we can extract the data to work on the problem.

* They indicate that when the beam passes through the plates it deviates towards the positive plate, so the beam must be negative electrons.

* Now indicates that the electric field and the magnetic field are contracted and that the beam passes without deviating, so the electric and magnetic forces must be balanced

           F_{e} =  F_{m}

           q E = qv B

           v = E / B

this configuration is called speed selector

They ask us what type of beam was used.

The beam used is a negatively charged electron beam with a velocity of v = E / B

6 0
3 years ago
A racquetball strikes a wall with a speed of 30 m/s and rebounds in the opposite direction with a speed of 26 m/s. The collision
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

The average acceleration of the ball during the collision with the wall is a=2,800m/s^{2}

Explanation:

<u>Known Data</u>

We will asume initial speed has a negative direction, v_{i}=-30m/s, final speed has a positive direction, v_{f}=26m/s, \Delta t=20ms=0.020s and mass m_{b}.

<u>Initial momentum</u>

p_{i}=mv_{i}=(-30m/s)(m_{b})=-30m_{b}\ m/s

<u>final momentum</u>

p_{f}=mv_{f}=(26m/s)(m_{b})=26m_{b}\ m/s

<u>Impulse</u>

I=\Delta p=p_{f}-p_{i}=26m_{b}\ m/s-(-30m_{b}\ m/s)=56m_{b}\ m/s

<u>Average Force</u>

F=\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} =\frac{56m_{b}\ m/s}{0.020s} =2800m_{b} \ m/s^{2}

<u>Average acceleration</u>

F=ma, so a=\frac{F}{m_{b}}.

Therefore, a=\frac{2800m_{b} \ m/s^{2}}{m_{b}} =2800m/s^{2}

8 0
3 years ago
Place a small object on the number line below at the position marked zero. Draw a circle around the object. Mark the center of t
Viefleur [7K]
It’s is D bc it is and idk you should do it
6 0
3 years ago
"A steel rotating-beam test specimen has an ultimate strength of 120 kpsi. Estimate the life of the specimen if it is tested at
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

life (N) of the specimen is 117000  cycles

Explanation:

given data

ultimate strength Su = 120 kpsi

stress amplitude σa = 70 kpsi

solution

we first calculate the endurance limit of specimen Se i.e

Se = 0.5× Su   .............1

Se = 0.5 × 120

Se = 60 kpsi

and we know strength of friction f  = 0.82

and we take endurance limit Se is = 60 kpsi

so here coefficient value (a) will be

a = \frac{(f\times Su)^2}{Se}     ......................1  

put here value and we get

a = \frac{(0.82\times 120)^2}{60}  

a = 161.4  kpsi

so coefficient value (b) will be

b = -\frac{1}{3}log\frac{(f\times Su)}{Se}  

b =  -\frac{1}{3}log\frac{(0.82\times 120)}{60}  

b = −0.0716

so here number of cycle N will be  

N =  (\frac{ \sigma a}{a})^{1/b}

put here value  and we get

N =  (\frac{ 70}{161.4})^{1/-0.0716}

N = 117000

so life (N) of the specimen is 117000  cycles

7 0
3 years ago
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