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alina1380 [7]
3 years ago
5

An infinite number of ratios are equivalent to 3:8. How

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See below, please!

Step-by-step explanation:

There are infinite number of ratios equivalent to 3:8 because both numbers can be multiplied by a common number or divided by a common number.

For example, 9:24 would still be equivalent to 3:8 because the common number in our case is 3. See what I mean?

Hope this helped!

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Find the measure of the missing angles. WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
Ivahew [28]
D = 90
This is because any line is equal to 180 degrees, we see that d is situated on a line that continues into another angle, the other angle is 90 degrees, so we minus 90 from 180, to get 90.

E = 99
E is situated on a line with the other angle F, F = 81 (see below) so we minus 81 from 180


F = 81
F is situated on a line, we minus it from the other angle situated on the same line, so we minus 99 from 180to get 81

Hope this helps! Please make me the brainliest, it’s not necessary but appreciated, I put a lot of effort and research into my answers. Have a good day, stay safe and stay healthy.
5 0
2 years ago
Write an expression to represent "triple the<br> quotient of a number and three."
Furkat [3]

Answer:

3n/3     or  3n÷3

Step-by-step explanation:

since it says triple the quotient of a <u>number</u>, we can use the number n.

To find the quotient means to divide and it's going to be by that numer.....n....... trippled (3)

put them all together and you get 3n/3

4 0
2 years ago
72 is what percent of80
snow_lady [41]
72/80=0.9

0.9*100=9

9%
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Anyone have any idea what it could be?
Ronch [10]
The answer is B because 90 to 30 is 3 over 2
4 0
3 years ago
Compute the loss of head and pressure drop in 200 ft of horizontal 6-in diameter asphalted cast iron pipe carrying water with a
laiz [17]

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

12 inches = 1 ft.

6 inches = 6 inches * (1 ft./12 inches) = 0.5 ft.

Therefore the diameter of the cast iron (D) = 6 inches = 0.5 ft.

The area of cast iron (A) = πD²/4 = π(0.5)²/4 = 0.196 ft²

The velocity (V) = 6 ft./s, the acceleration due to gravity (g) = 32.2 ft./s²

ε/D = 0.0004 ft./ 0.5 ft. = 0.0008

Using the moody chart, find the line ε/D = 0.0008 and determine the point of intersection with the vertical line R = 2.7 * 10⁵. Hence we get f = 0.02.

The head loss (h) is:

h_f=f*\frac{L}{d}* \frac{V^2}{2g}=0.02*\frac{200\ ft}{0.5\ ft} *\frac{(6\ ft/s)^2}{2*32.2\ ft/s^2}=4.5\ ft

The pressure drop (Δp) is:

Δp = ρgh_f = (62.4\ lbf/ft^3)(4.5\ ft)= 280\ lbf/ft^2

5 0
3 years ago
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