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alina1380 [7]
3 years ago
5

An infinite number of ratios are equivalent to 3:8. How

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See below, please!

Step-by-step explanation:

There are infinite number of ratios equivalent to 3:8 because both numbers can be multiplied by a common number or divided by a common number.

For example, 9:24 would still be equivalent to 3:8 because the common number in our case is 3. See what I mean?

Hope this helped!

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Multiply by 12

... 4(x -1) +3(x +5) = 6

... 4x -4 +3x +15 = 6 . . . . . eliminate parentheses

... 7x +11 = 6 . . . . . . . . . . . .collect terms

... 7x = -5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . subtract the constant 11

... x = -5/7 . . . . . . . . . . . . . divide by the x-coefficient

_ _ _ _ _ _ _

Here it is the other way.

... x(1/3 +1/4) +(-1/3 +5/4) = 1/2

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At the third step here, you could subtract 11/12 before doing the multiply. You get the same answer, but you have to do the extra conversion of 1/2=6/12.

8 0
3 years ago
Can you help with this problem 5×-(14-×)=-30-2×​
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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